BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 168

Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:................................................................................
SECTION A (8 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. laughs

B. drops

C. maintains

D. imports

Question 2: A. justice

B. campus

C. culture

D. brush

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. inflation

B. maximum

C. applicant

D. character

Question 4: A. compulsory

B. biography

C. curriculum

D. admirable

Question 5: A. struggle

B. anxious

C. confide

D. comfort

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: In the wake of increasing food poisoning, many consumers have turned to vegetables ______

organically.
B. grown
C. which grows
D. are grown
A. that grown
Question 7: It is raining heavily with rolls of thunder. We ______ such a terrible thunderstorm.
B. had never seen
C. have never seen
D. never see
A. would never see
Question 8: Most teenagers enjoy ______ the Internet for information and entertainment.
B. surf
C. surfed
D. to surf
A. surfing
Question 9: ______ they are delicious, hamburgers and French fries are too high in fat.
B. Although
C. Because
D. Despite
A. However
Question 10: Canned food is not as healthy as fresh food, ______?
B. doesn’t it
C. is it
A. isn’t it

D. does it

Question 11: Without your help, I ______ the technical problem with my computer the other day.
B. couldn’t have solved C. could solve
D. can’t solve

A. wouldn’t solve
Question 12: This part of the country is famous ______ its beautiful landscapes and fine cuisine.
B. with
C. of
D. for
A. about
Question 13: In a modern family, the husband is expected to join hands with his wife to ______ the
household chores.
B. run
C. take
D. make
A. do
Question 14: Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is ______.
B. quite well established by the age of five
A. by the age of five it is quite well established
C. well established quite by the age of five
D. by the age of five and quite well established
Question 15: A waiter in a restaurant is talking to a customer who has just finished his meal there. Select the
most suitable response to complete the exchange.
- Waiter: “Here’s your bill, sir.”
- Customer: “______”
B. Can I pay by credit card?
A. Don’t mention it.
C. What do you have?
D. You’re welcome.
Question 16: The Government has brought ______ a new law in an effort to prevent further environmental
deterioration.
B. about
C. up
D. on

A. in
Trang 1/6 - Mã đề thi 168


Question 17: She took a course in fine arts ______ starting her own business in interior design.
A. with a view to
B. in terms of
C. in order to
D. with reference to
Question 18: All the ______ in the stadium applauded the winner of the marathon when he crossed the
finishing line.
B. audience
C. viewers
D. spectators
A. watchers
Question 19: The table in the living room should be moved to ______ the new TV set.
A. get rid of
B. pave the way for
C. make room for
D. take hold of
Question 20: The US president Barack Obama ______ an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of
great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership.
B. paid
C. offered
D. gave
A. delivered
Question 21: Two close friends Tom and Kyle are talking about Kyle’s upcoming birthday. Select the most
suitable response to complete the exchange.
- Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?”
- Kyle: “______”

B. Let’s do it then.
A. It’s my honour.
C. The more the merrier.
D. That’s right.
Question 22: Candidates are requested to ______ the form to the admissions officer by July 25th.
B. show up
C. pass over
D. hand in
A. fill out
Question 23: The firefighters’ single-minded devotion to the rescue of the victims of the fire was ______.
B. respective
C. respectful
D. respectable
A. respecting
Question 24: The university administrations are introducing new measures to ______ that the enrolment
process runs smoothly.
B. improve
C. facilitate
D. ensure
A. maintain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for
more welfare.
B. sacked
C. reviewed
D. deleted
A. rejected
Question 26: Environmentalists appeal to the government to enact laws to stop factories from discharging

toxic chemicals into the sea.
B. producing
C. obtaining
D. dismissing
A. releasing
Question 27: The overall aim of the book is to help bridge the gap between theory and practice, particularly
in language teaching.
B. reduce the differences
A. increase the understanding
C. minimise the limitations
D. construct a bridge

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: The longer the children waited in the long queue, the more impatiently they became.
A
B
C
D
Question 29: Because of bad weather conditions, it took the explorers three days reaching their destination.
A
B
C
D
Question 30: According to most doctors, massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and
A
B
speeding up recovery from illnesses.
C
D

Question 31: New sources of energy have been looking for as the number of fossil fuels continues to decrease.
A
B
C
D
Question 32: The science of medicine, which progress has been very rapid lately, is perhaps the most important
A
B
C
of all sciences.
D

Trang 2/6 - Mã đề thi 168


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 33 to 42.
Though called by sweet-sounding names like Firinga or Katrina, tropical cyclones are huge rotating storms
200 to 2,000 kilometers wide with winds that blow at speeds of more than 100 kilometers per hour (kph).
Weather professionals know them as tropical cyclones, but they are called hurricanes in the Caribbean Sea,
typhoons in the Pacific Ocean, and cyclones in the Indian Ocean. They occur in both the northern and
southern hemispheres. Large ones have destroyed cities and killed hundreds of thousands of people.
Tropical cyclones begin over water that is warmer than 27 degrees Celsius (80 degrees Fahrenheit) slightly
north or south of the earth’s equator. Warm, humid air full of water vapor moves upward. The earth’s
rotation causes the growing storm to start to rotate around its center (called the eye). At a certain height, the
water vapor condenses, changing to liquid and releasing heat. The heat draws more air and water vapor
upward, creating a cycle as air and water vapor rise and liquid water falls. If the cycle speeds up until winds
reach 118 kilometers per hour, the storm qualifies as a tropical cyclone.
Most deaths in tropical cyclones are caused by storm surge. This is a rise in sea level, sometimes seven
meters or more, caused by the storm pushing against the ocean’s surface. Storm surge was to blame for the

flooding of New Orleans in 2005. The storm surge of Cyclone Nargis in 2008 in Myanmar pushed seawater
nearly four meters deep some 40 kilometers inland, resulting in many deaths.
It has never been easy to forecast a tropical cyclone accurately. The goal is to know when and where the
next tropical cyclone will form. “And we can’t really do that yet,” says David Nolan, a weather researcher from
the University of Miami. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are also difficult to predict, even with
computer assistance. In fact, long-term forecasts are poor; small differences in the combination of weather
factors lead to very different storms. More accurate forecasting could help people decide to evacuate when a
storm is on the way.
Adapted from “Reading Explorer 2” by Paul Maclntyre

Question 33: As stated in paragraph 1, tropical cyclones are storms with winds blowing at speeds of ______.
B. at least 200 kph
A. more than 100 kph
C. less than 100 kph
D. no less than 200 kph
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
B. wind speeds
A. sweet-sounding names
C. tropical cyclones
D. weather professionals
Question 35: According to the passage, tropical cyclones are called typhoons in ______.
B. the Arctic Ocean
A. the Indian Ocean
C. the Atlantic Ocean
D. the Pacific Ocean
Question 36: The word “humid” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
B. dry
C. thin
D. thick
A. moist

Question 37: Which of the following comes first in the process of storm formation?
B. Warm, humid air moves upward.
A. Liquid water falls.
C. Water vapor condenses.
D. Wind speed reaches 118 kph.
Question 38: According to the passage, a storm surge is ______.
B. pushing seawater
C. a tropical cyclone
A. a rise in sea level

D. inland flooding

Question 39: What is true about the storm surge of Cyclone Nargis?
B. It caused flooding in New Orleans in 2005.
A. It took a very high death toll.
C. It occurred in Myanmar in 2005.
D. It pushed seawater 4 kilometers inland.
Question 40: The word “evacuate” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
B. make accurate predictions
A. move to safer places
C. take preventive measures
D. call for relief supplies
Question 41: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The center of a growing storm is known as its eye.
B. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are difficult to forecast.
C. Tropical cyclones are often given beautiful names.
D. Tropical cyclone predictions depend entirely on computer assistance.
Question 42: Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
B. Tropical Cyclones
A. Cyclone Forecasting

C. Storm Surges
D. Cyclone Formation

Trang 3/6 - Mã đề thi 168


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It is widely known that the excessive use of pesticides is producing a detrimental effect on the
local groundwater.
B. harmless
C. damaging
D. fundamental
A. useless
Question 44: His dreamlike villa in the new residential quarter is the envy of his friends.
B. something that everybody dreams of
A. something that everybody looks for
C. something that nobody wants
D. something that nobody can afford

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 45 to 54.
THE DANGERS OF DIETING
Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of computers than
ever before, the (45)______ of overweight people is at a new high. As people frantically search for a solution
(46)______ this problem, they often try some of the popular fad diets being offered. Many people see fad diets
(47)______ harmless ways of losing weight, and they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only don’t
fad diets usually (48)______ the trick, they can actually be dangerous for your health.
Although permanent weight loss is the (49)______, few are able to achieve it. Experts estimate that 95
percent of dieters return to their starting weight, or even (50)______ weight. While the reckless use of fad

diets can bring some (51)______ results, long-term results are very rare.
(52)______, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often turn to fad
diets. (53)______ being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dietary changes. They advise eating only one type
of food, or they prohibit other types of foods entirely. This results in a situation (54)______ a person’s body
doesn’t get all the vitamins and other things that it needs to stay healthy.
Adapted from “Active Skills for Reading: Book 3” by Neil J. Anderson

Question 45: A. number

B. range

C. amount

D. sum

Question 46: A. on

B. of

C. to

D. with

Question 47: A. by

B. like

C. through

D. as


Question 48: A. bring

B. do

C. take

D. play

Question 49: A. case

B. profit

C. benefit

D. goal

Question 50: A. lose

B. gain

C. put

D. reduce

Question 51: A. initial

B. initiative

C. initiating


D. initiate

Question 52: A. Additionally

B. Furthermore

C. Nonetheless

D. Consequently

Question 53: A. More than

B. In spite of

C. Rather than

D. In addition to

Question 54: A. what

B. which

C. why

D. where

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or community gardens

scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within
and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban agriculture doesn’t necessarily
equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area,” says Jason Niebler, who directs the
Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College. “It means we are
providing for growing population food needs from surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core
urban landscape.”
Picture a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some food at varying capacities,
surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become increasingly more rural with distance. The
hope is that such land use planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will encourage local ecologically
sound sustainable food production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and decrease reliance on distant food
products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.
That’s the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation’s first metropolitan-based community college
sustainable agriculture program that emphasizes farming practices across diverse landscape types from urban
Trang 4/6 - Mã đề thi 168


centers to surrounding rural environs. “It’s small scale agriculture with an urban focus,” Niebler says. “Any
urban population, large or small, can practice sustainable agriculture, improve food security and protect the
environment, which ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities.”
SAgE is a part of the National Science Foundation’s Advanced Technological Education (ATE) Program,
which is providing the project with $157,375 over two years. ATE’s goal is to support projects that strengthen
the skills of technicians who work in industries regarded as vital to the nation’s prosperity and security. The
support largely goes to community colleges that work in partnership with universities, secondary schools,
businesses and industries, as well as government agencies, which design and implement model workforce
initiatives.
The SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political and cultural issues related to
sustainable food systems within Puget Sound watersheds through student and community education and
research, and technological innovation. The curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as agricultural
ecology, urban food systems, food politics and ethics, soil science, sustainable food production and
technology, the integration of food and forests, and career opportunities.

“We’ve created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the principles of sustainable
agriculture and what a food system is – how it functions both locally and globally,” Niebler says. “These
courses are challenging, robust and inspirational. One of the really wonderful things about them is that we
offer service learning opportunities, where students volunteer a portion of their time to working with local
partner organizations. They can do a research project, or a service learning option. The ideal would be to
prompt students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban agriculture setting.”
Adapted from “Promoting Sustainable Agriculture” by Marlene Cimons

Question 55: It is stated in the passage that Jason Niebler ______.
A. preserves the core urban landscape
B. provides food for Seattle’s population
C. studies at Seattle Central Community College
D. directs the SAgE Initiative
Question 56: It can be inferred from the passage that the conventional idea of urban agriculture ______.
A. focuses mainly on agriculture within and beyond the Puget Sound region
B. aims at food production and consumption in both rural and urban regions
C. is associated with production only in metropolitan urban areas
D. concerns with food production in any city’s surrounding areas
Question 57: The word “concentric” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
B. having the same size
A. coming from different places
C. going in different directions
D. having the same center
Question 58: Which of the following is supposed to be an outcome of the SAgE’s new land use planning?
A. Dependence on distant food products
B. Increased food production in large scale farms
C. Employment opportunities for local residents
D. Modernized farming practices in rural environs
Question 59: The phrase “in partnership with” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
B. in addition to

C. in place of
D. instead of
A. together with
Question 60: The curriculum of SAgE at Seattle Central Community College offers courses covering the
following EXCEPT ______.
B. career opportunities
A. agricultural ecology
C. urban system development
D. integration of food and forests
Question 61: In Niebler’s opinion, the courses offered by the SAgE project are ______.
B. robust but unpromising
A. functional but impractical
C. challenging and costly
D. hard but encouraging
Question 62: The word “them” in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
B. opportunities
C. principles
A. courses

D. students

Question 63: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The curriculum that the SAgE project designs is fundamental in nature.
B. The SAgE project alone will offer students sufficient jobs in urban agriculture.
C. ATE helps to improve the skills of technicians in the nation’s major industries.
D. Resilient food systems can be attributed to sustainable agricultural practices.
Question 64: Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the passage?
B. Provocative
C. Supportive
D. Satirical

A. Skeptical

Trang 5/6 - Mã đề thi 168


SECTION B (2 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers in complete sentences on your answer sheet.
Question 1: He now regrets that he didn’t take the doctor’s advice.
He now wishes ___________________________________________________________.
Question 2: “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework,” Peter said to the teacher.
Peter apologised __________________________________________________________.
Question 3: I’m sure that he didn’t attend the Conference on Wildlife Protection yesterday.
He can’t _________________________________________________________________.
Question 4: She didn’t pass the exam because of her serious illness.
Had she not ______________________________________________________________.
Question 5: Ms Betty is proud of her singing.
Ms Betty prides ___________________________________________________________.

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of knowing how to swim. Write
your paragraph on your answer sheet.
The following prompts might be helpful to you.
- Keeping fit
- Relaxing
- Surviving/Saving people’s lives
----_________THE END_________

Trang 6/6 - Mã đề thi 168



BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016

ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8,0 điểm)
Câu hỏi
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17

18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

Mã đề thi
168
C
B
A
D

C
B
C
A
B
C
B
D
A
B
B
A
A
D
C
B
C
D
D
D
A
A
B
D
D
C
B
B
A
C

D
A
B
A
A
A

259
D
A
B
B
D
C
B
C
C
A
B
D
D
A
A
B
D
C
C
C
B
B

B
C
A
C
D
C
D
B
D
B
C
D
D
A
B
D
D
D

415
D
A
C
D
C
C
D
B
B
A

D
D
D
A
A
D
B
C
D
A
C
B
D
C
D
B
B
D
C
A
A
B
A
C
C
A
B
C
B
D


642
A
A
C
A
C
A
B
B
A
C
D
B
D
A
B
B
A
C
C
B
B
D
B
D
C
D
B
D

B
C
D
B
A
B
D
B
D
C
C
C

852
A
D
A
C
A
A
A
C
C
B
C
C
D
A
A
A

A
C
D
B
D
C
C
D
B
D
B
C
D
C
A
D
A
C
B
C
B
A
B
A

975
C
B
B
B

B
A
D
D
B
D
C
C
A
D
D
C
D
C
B
A
A
A
D
A
B
A
A
C
B
B
D
D
C
D

B
C
A
A
C
C
1


Câu hỏi
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60

61
62
63
64

Mã đề thi
168
D
B
B
C
A
C
D
B
D
B
A
C
C
D
D
C
D
C
A
C
D
A
B

C

259
A
C
B
A
C
B
A
C
B
C
C
C
A
A
B
D
A
A
A
A
D
D
A
B

415
A

A
A
D
C
D
A
D
A
A
C
B
D
C
C
B
B
C
A
B
C
B
B
B

642
A
D
D
B
C

A
D
B
C
D
D
A
A
A
A
D
A
C
C
C
D
A
C
B

852
B
C
B
B
D
D
D
C
A

D
B
D
C
D
B
B
D
C
A
D
B
B
A
B

975
D
D
B
A
D
C
C
A
B
A
D
C
D

B
C
A
C
B
C
B
A
A
D
B

B. PHẦN VIẾT (2,0 điểm)
I. Chuyển đổi câu (0,5 điểm: 0,1 điểm/câu)
Câu 1: He now wishes (that) he had/he’d taken the doctor’s advice.
Câu 2: Peter apologised/apologized (to the/his teacher) for not doing the/his homework.
hoặc Peter apologised/apologized (to the/his teacher) for not having done the/his
homework.
Câu 3: He can’t have attended the Conference on Wildlife Protection yesterday.
Câu 4: Had she not been seriously ill, she would/could/might have passed the exam.
hoặc Had she not been seriously ill, she would not/wouldn’t/could not/couldn’t/
might not/mightn’t have failed (in) the exam.
Câu 5: Ms Betty prides herself on her singing.
hoặc Ms Betty prides herself on her being a good singer.
hoặc Ms Betty prides herself on her ability to sing.
II. Viết đoạn văn (1,5 điểm)

2



BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 194

Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:................................................................................
SECTION A (8 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. deal

B. teach

C. break

D. clean

Question 2: A. supported

B. approached

C. noticed


D. finished

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. recipe

B. candidate

C. instrument

D. commitment

Question 4: A. conceal

B. contain

C. conserve

D. conquer

Question 5: A. advantageous

B. oceanic

C. compulsory

D. influential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

Question 6: The receptionist, ______ answered the phone, told me that the director was out.
B. whom
C. who
D. that
A. whose
Question 7: Changes have been made in our primary schooling program. As a result, young children ______
do homework any more.
B. oughtn’t
C. couldn’t
D. haven’t
A. needn’t
Question 8: ______ the salesman promised to exchange the defective CD player for a new one, they insisted
on getting a refund.
B. Although
C. And
D. But
A. Despite
Question 9: The headmaster has decided that three lecture halls ______ in our school next semester.
B. will be built
C. are being built
D. will be building
A. will build
Question 10: Although MERS (Middle East Respiratory Syndrome) spreads through close contact with sick
people, not through the air, many people still avoid ______ to crowded places.
B. having gone
C. gone
D. going
A. to go
Question 11: Students will not be allowed into the exam room if they ______ their student cards.
B. hadn’t produced

C. didn’t produce
D. don’t produce
A. produced
Question 12: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made ______ accident.
B. on
C. in
D. by
A. at
Question 13: When asked about their preference for movies, many young people say that they are in favour
______ science fiction.
B. for
C. of
D. with
A. in
Question 14: A molecule of water is ______ of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen.
B. created
C. included
D. consisted
A. composed
Question 15: Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
B. brown wooden nice
C. nice wooden brown
D. wooden brown nice
A. nice brown wooden
Question 16: Global warming will result ______ crop failures and famine.
B. to
C. in
A. of

D. from


Question 17: John has finally found a new job after being ______ for three months.
B. out of mind
C. out of work
D. out of reach
A. out of order
Question 18: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien performed so well in the 28th Sea Games women’s 200m butterfly that
none of her rivals could ______ her.
B. look up to
C. come up to
D. put up with
A. catch up with

Trang 1/6 - Mã đề thi 194


Question 19: After the new technique had been introduced, the factory produced ______ cars in 2014 as the
year before.
B. as twice many
C. as many twice
D. twice as many
A. twice many as
Question 20: It is ______ of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
B. typical
C. ordinary
A. familiar

D. common

Question 21: Such characters as fairies or witches in Walt Disney animated cartoons are purely ______.

B. imagining
C. imaginative
D. imaginable
A. imaginary
Question 22: ______ at school yesterday when we were informed that there was no class due to a sudden
power cut.
B. We have hardly arrived
A. We had arrived hardly
C. Hardly we had arrived
D. Hardly had we arrived
Question 23: Mike and Lane are university students. They are talking about Lane’s upcoming high-school
reunion. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: “So, you have your fifth high-school reunion coming up?”
Lane: “______”
A. Oh, the school reunion was wonderful.
C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it.

B. The food at the reunion was excellent.
D. No. You’re in no mood for the event.

Question 24: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.
Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?”
Tom: “______”
A. We are too busy on weekdays.
C. Why don’t you look at the atlas?

B. The library would be best.
D. Studying in a group is great fun.


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a
feast – a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth-watering.
B. involving hygienic conditions and diseases
A. concerning nutrition and health
C. relating to medical knowledge
D. having to do with food and cooking
Question 26: Suddenly, it began to rain heavily, so all the summer hikers got drenched all over.
B. refreshed
C. completely wet
D. cleansed
A. very tired
Question 27: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to me.”
B. a book that is never opened
A. an object that I really love
C. a subject that I don’t understand
D. a theme that I like to discuss

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: It is common knowledge that solar heating for a large office building is technically different
A
B
C
from a single-family home.
D
Question 29: The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent
A
B

C
severe earthquake.
D
Question 30: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their age, sex,
A
B
C
or nationality.
D
Question 31: Since poaching is becoming more seriously, the government has imposed stricter laws
A
B
C
to prevent it.
D
Question 32: Reminding not to miss the 15:20 train, the manager set out for the station in a hurry.
A

B

C

D

Trang 2/6 - Mã đề thi 194


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 42.
Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to people for reading,

study, or reference. The word library comes (33)______ liber, the Latin word for “book”. (34)______, library
collections have almost always contained a variety of materials. Contemporary libraries maintain collections
that include not only printed materials such as manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines, (35)______
audio-visual and online databases. In addition (36)______ maintaining collections within library buildings,
modern libraries often feature telecommunications links that provide users with access to information at
remote sites.
The central mission of a library (37)______ to collect, organize, preserve, and provide access to
knowledge and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a valuable record of culture that can be
passed down to (38)______ generations. Libraries are an essential link in this communication between the
past, present, and future. Whether the cultural record is contained in books or in electronic formats, libraries
ensure (39)______ the record is preserved and made available for later use.
People use library resources to gain information about personal (40)______ or to obtain recreational
materials such as films and novels. Students use libraries to supplement and enhance their classroom
experiences, to learn (41)______ in locating sources of information, and to develop good reading and study
habits. Public officials use libraries to research legislation and public policy issues. One of the most valued of
all cultural institutions, the library (42) ______ information and services that are essential to learning and
progress.
From "Library (institution)" by Richard S. Halsey et al.

Question 33: A. from

B. in

C. to

D. out

Question 34: A. Despite

B. However


C. Therefore

D. Instead

Question 35: A. only if

B. as well

C. or else

D. but also

Question 36: A. on

B. to

C. in

D. from

Question 37: A. are

B. is

C. have

D. has

Question 38: A. succeeding


B. succeed

C. successful

D. success

Question 39: A. what

B. which

C. who

D. that

Question 40: A. profits

B. attractions

C. interests

D. appeals

Question 41: A. abilities

B. skills

C. talents

D. capacities


Question 42: A. relates

B. applies

C. supplies

D. digests

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 43: “Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
B. feminist
C. optimist
D. hobbyist
A. activist
Question 44: “Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight.”
B. look up
C. slow down
D. put forward
A. turn down

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming. Scientists
have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and
birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration
patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In

many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland
blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those
found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not
possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling
sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated
that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further

Trang 3/6 - Mã đề thi 194


warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some
species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough
and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming. Warmer
ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the coral.
Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching and
death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and
increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
From "Global Warming" by Michael Mastrandrea and Stephen H. Schneider

Question 45: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ______.
B. bloom earlier
C. become lighter
D. lose color
A. die instantly
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move ______.
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations

D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
Question 47: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
B. ecosystems
C. habitats
A. species

D. areas

Question 48: The phrase “dwindling sea ice” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
B. the violent Arctic Ocean
A. the frozen water in the Arctic
C. the melting ice in the Arctic
D. the cold ice in the Arctic
Question 49: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees,
______.
A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent
D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
Question 50: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer
temperatures, ______.
B. they can begin to develop
A. they may be endangered
C. they will certainly need water
D. they move to tropical forests
Question 51: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
B. easily damaged
C. rather strong
D. pretty hard
A. very large

Question 52: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates ______.
B. the quick growth of marine mammals
A. the water absorption of coral reefs
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds
D. the slow death of coral reefs
Question 53: The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by ______.
A. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean
B. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters
C. the extinction of species in coastal areas
D. the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth
Question 54: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles
B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants
C. Global warming and possible solutions
D. Global warming and species migration

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of
resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain
number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food
and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple
farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers
of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.

Trang 4/6 - Mã đề thi 194


In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,

overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities
of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and
agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people
in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons
per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which
contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe,
such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice
mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of
living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less
than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these
countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a
consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and
high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many
poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies
commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide
little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small
have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population
growth.
From "Poverty" by Thomas J. Corbett

Question 55: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraph 1?
B. Population density
C. Simple farming
A. Overpopulation

D. Poverty


Question 56: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
B. Skilled labor
C. Farming methods
D. Land area
A. Available resources
Question 57: The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______.
B. densities
C. resources
D. countries
A. people
Question 58: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ______.
B. there are small numbers of laborers
A. there is lack of mechanization
C. there is an abundance of resources
D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 59: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______.
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 60: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. escape from
B. look into
C. give up
D. participate in
Question 61: The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
B. impossible
C. unproductive
A. disused


D. inaccessible

Question 62: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
B. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
C. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
D. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
Question 63: Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
B. Economic resources
A. High-tech facilities
C. Sufficient financial support
D. High birth rates
Question 64: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem
D. Poverty in Developing Countries

Trang 5/6 - Mã đề thi 194


SECTION B (2 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: If John does not change his working style, he will be sacked soon.
Unless _____________________________________________________.
Question 2: “Would you like to come to my 18th birthday party?” he asked me.
He invited __________________________________________________.

Question 3: People believe that this new teaching method is more effective than the old one.
This new teaching method ____________________________________.
Question 4: He did not realize how difficult the task was until he was halfway through it.
Not until __________________________________________________.
Question 5: It was wrong of you to leave the class without asking for your teacher’s permission.
You should not _____________________________________________.

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of reading books. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet.
The following prompts might be helpful to you.
- Widening knowledge
- Improving language
- Relaxing
----------------------------------------------------------

THE END ----------

Trang 6/6 - Mã đề thi 194


BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015

ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH


A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8,0 điểm)
Câu hỏi
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28

29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41

Mã đề thi
194
C
A
D
D
C
C
A
B
B
D
D
D
C
A

A
C
C
A
D
B
A
D
C
B
D
C
C
D
B
C
B
A
A
B
D
B
B
A
D
C
B

362
A

D
C
C
C
B
C
D
B
A
D
A
B
D
C
B
A
A
D
B
A
C
A
B
A
A
B
B
C
A
D

A
B
C
C
D
C
B
A
D
D

425
C
A
B
A
D
C
D
D
A
A
C
D
D
C
D
D
B
A

B
A
C
B
D
C
D
C
B
B
A
D
D
B
C
C
B
D
A
C
A
B
C

582
D
C
A
B
B

D
D
A
D
C
C
B
A
D
A
A
B
C
D
A
C
B
D
C
A
B
A
B
D
B
A
C
C
C
D

B
B
B
D
D
D

796
C
A
B
C
B
B
D
B
D
A
A
C
C
D
C
A
D
D
B
B
A
A

D
B
C
A
B
D
B
A
C
A
D
D
B
C
C
C
D
A
C

931
A
B
C
C
B
A
A
C
B

B
B
D
A
D
C
C
D
D
B
A
D
A
D
D
D
C
B
C
C
A
D
C
B
A
B
A
C
A
D

A
D
1


Câu hỏi
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64


Mã đề thi
194
C
C
C
B
D
A
C
D
A
B
D
A
B
A
A
A
A
B
D
C
A
D
B

362
A
A
A

A
B
D
D
C
B
D
C
C
C
C
A
C
D
B
D
B
D
B
D

425
C
D
B
B
A
B
B
A

C
D
A
D
B
D
B
C
A
A
A
A
C
A
C

582
A
C
A
A
A
C
A
A
C
B
B
C
B

C
D
D
C
A
C
D
B
A
D

796
A
A
A
A
D
B
D
C
B
B
B
D
B
C
D
A
A
C

C
D
C
A
D

931
C
A
C
A
A
A
B
B
D
C
A
B
B
C
D
C
C
D
D
B
B
A
D


B. PHẦN VIẾT (2,0 điểm)
I. Viết tiếp câu (0,1 điểm x 5 câu = 0,5 điểm)
Câu 1: Unless John changes his working style, he will be sacked soon.
Câu 2: He invited me (to come) to his 18th birthday party.
Câu 3: This new teaching method is believed to be more effective than the old one.
Câu 4: Not until he was halfway through the task did he realize how difficult it was. Hoặc:
Not until he was halfway through it did he realize how difficult the task was.
Câu 5: You should not have left the class without asking for your teacher’s permission.
II. Viết đoạn văn (1,5 điểm)

2


BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề có 6 trang)

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 163

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:............................................................................

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

Question 1: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ______.
A. more heat it retains
B. it retains the more heat
C. the heat it retains more
D. the more heat it retains
Question 2: We received a call from the teacher ______ charge of our course.
A. at
B. in
C. on

D. to

Question 3: Tom hasn't completed the work yet and Maria hasn't ______.
A. neither
B. either
C. too

D. also

Question 4: ______ was the tea that we couldn’t drink it.
A. No longer
B. So strong
C. Hardly ever

D. How strong

Question 5: We could have caught the last train, but we ______ five minutes late.
A. were
B. would be
C. have been

D. are
Question 6: Do you remember ______ to help us when we were in difficulty?
A. you offer
B. being offered
C. once offering

D. to offer

Question 7: In our team, no person ______ John could finish this tough task in such a short time.
A. including
B. rather than
C. outside
D. other than
Question 8: ______ he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.
A. Nevertheless
B. Despite
C. Although
D. Meanwhile
Question 9: The superstar, accompanied by the other members of the band, ______ to visit our school next
week.
A. are going
B. is going
C. are
D. has had
Question 10: Be sure not to rely too ______ on your mother tongue when you are learning a foreign language.
A. abundantly
B. severely
C. numerously
D. heavily
Question 11: Communities in remote areas are extremely _____ to famine if crops fail.

A. vulnerable
B. helpless
C. disappointed
D. defenseless
Question 12: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ______ what they were saying.
A. try out
B. turn up
C. make out
D. bring about
Question 13: ______ always gives me real pleasure.
A. I arrange flowers
B. The flowers are arranged
C. Arranging flowers
D. While arranging flowers
Question 14: ______ a few more minutes, we could have finished the task.
A. If we had had
B. If we have
C. If we had
D. Unless we had
Question 15: The theory of relativity ______ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. was developed
B. developed
C. is developed
D. develops
Question 16: Mrs. Chau has managed the department ______ that she’ll be promoted next month.
A. too successfully
B. so successfully
C. too successful
D. very successful
Question 17: Sammy had worked in England for a year ______ moving to Scotland.

A. before
B. once
C. until
D. while
Question 18: We hoped ______ they would come and give us new lectures.
A. that
B. what
C. when
D. which
Trang 1/6 – Mã đề 163


Question 19: In my apartment there are two rooms, ______ is used as the living-room.
A. the large one
B. the larger of which
C. the largest one
D. the largest of which
Question 20: “It’s about time you ______ your homework, Mary.”
A. do
B. did
C. must do
D. will do
Question 21: The girl was used ______ birthday presents from her brothers.
A. to receive
B. to receiving
C. to being received
D. to be receiving
th
Question 22: Applications _____ in after 30 April will not be considered.
A. which sent

B. that is sent
C. sent
D. send
Question 23: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “______”
A. How dare you?
B. Thank you.
Question 24: Kay: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.”

C. I’m afraid so.

John: “______”
A. Wouldn’t you? Why?
C. I’d rather you didn’t.
Question 25: Mary: “The hat’s so beautiful. Thanks."

B. It’s out of the question.
D. Would you, really?

Tony: “________”
A. I’m glad you like it.

B. Great idea!

C. Lucky you!

D. Don’t mention it.

D. The same to you!


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35.
A radio telescope is a radio receiver that "sees" radio waves. Unlike a normal telescope, which sees light, a
radio telescope is used primarily in the area of astronomy because it can detect radio waves that are emitted by
celestial objects. Such objects in space, also called radio objects, can be things such as hot gas, electrons, and
wavelengths given off by different atoms and molecules.
The first radio telescope was invented by Grote Reber in 1937. He was an American who graduated with a
degree in engineering. He went on to work as an amateur radio operator and later decided to try to build his
own radio telescope in his backyard. Reber's first two radio receivers failed to pick up any signals from outer
space, but in 1938, his third radio telescope successfully picked up radio waves from space.
A radio telescope consists of a large parabolic-shaped dish antenna or a combination of two or more. The
significance of the parabolic shape allows for the incoming radio waves to be concentrated on one focal point,
allowing the signals to be picked up as strongly as possible. A larger dish means that more signals can be
received and focalized.
In the late 1950s and early 1960s, the largest radio telescope of the time was invented with a seventy-sixmeter telescope although larger telescopes have been made since then. The largest current radio telescope in
the world is the RATAN-600 in Russia, whose diameter is 576 meters. It has provided valuable feedback of the
sun's radio wavelengths and atmosphere. The largest radio telescope in Europe is a 100-meter diameter
telescope in Germany, and the largest radio telescope in the United States is the Big Ear in the state of Ohio.
The largest array of telescopes is the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope in India.
Radio telescopes have provided scientists with valuable information about our universe. One of the most
important functions of radio telescopes is their ability to allow scientists to track different space probes, the
unmanned space missions in outer space. Radio telescopes allow for the travel of space probes into places like
the surface of Mars that are too dangerous for men to explore. Without radio wave technology, scientists would
not know much of what inhabits the universe nor would they be able to see it. Radio waves are our eyes and
ears in outer space.
By Timothy Hall, Arthur H. Milch and Denise McCormach. How to Master skills for the TOEFL iBT

Question 26: According to the passage, a radio telescope enables the detection of ______.
A. normal light of celestial objects
B. radio waves sent out by celestial objects

C. creatures that inhabit celestial objects
D. shapes and sizes of celestial objects
Question 27: According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true about Grote Reber EXCEPT that ______.
A. he was an amateur radio operator
B. he was an astronomer
C. he was an engineer
D. he was an inventor
Question 28: Grote Reber’s idea to develop a radio telescope was not successful until ______.
A. he first built one in his backyard
B. he graduated from an engineering school
C. he experimented on the third one
D. he picked up signals from outer space
Trang 2/6 – Mã đề 163


Question 29: The verb “pick up” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. send
B. receive
C. select
D. lift
Question 30: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The pattern of radio waves received by radio telescopes is significant.
B. The largest radio telescope of all time is the one with a seventy-six-meter diameter.
C. A larger dish antenna helps a radio telescope produce better results.
D. The Big Ear in the United States produces the largest array of telescopes.
Question 31: The word “current” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. water movement
B. electricity flow
C. moving
D. existing

Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. places
B. scientists
C. radio waves
D. eyes and ears
Question 33: Radio waves are scientists’ eyes and ears in outer space because ______.
A. they allow them to travel to such dangerous places as Mars
B. they help to track only manned space missions in space
C. they can recognize who dominates the universe
D. they can help them understand more about the universe
Question 34: The focus of discussion in the passage is ______.
A. radio telescopes
B. radio waves
C. radio operators
D. atoms and molecules
Question 35: Originally, this passage was probably published in ______.
A. a fashion magazine
B. a scientific journal
C. a business journal
D. a book on environment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 45.

Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can't find the
energy to get out of bed (36)_______ for school? According to a new report, today's generation of children are
in danger of getting so (37)________ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at
(38)________. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (39)________ teenagers require
nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (40)_________ anything between two
and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.

This (41)_________ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children's ability to
concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time
and poor concentration is well (42)_________. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour's sleep a
night can have profound effects (43)________ how children perform the next day. A good night's sleep is also
crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (44)________ they release a hormone that is essential
for their 'growth spurt' (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It's true that
they can, to some (45)________, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won't help them when they are
dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.

By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies. Solutions Advanced. OUP

Question 36: A. in time

B. at time

C. behind time

D. about time

Question 37: A. less

B. little

C. few

D. much

Question 38: A. risk

B. danger


C. threat

D. jeopardy

Question 39: A. because

B. so

C. or

D. whereas

Question 40: A. makes

B. puts

C. gets

D. brings

Question 41: A. rises

B. raises

C. comes

D. results

Question 42: A. arranged


B. organized

C. established

D. acquired

Question 43: A. on

B. in

C. at

D. to

Question 44: A. where

B. that

C. which

D. at which

Question 45: A. level

B. rate

C. extent

D. point


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 46: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several adventurous
tourists managed to reach the top.
A. causing a lot of risks
B. bringing excitement
C. costing a lot of money
D. resulting in depression
Trang 3/6 – Mã đề 163


Question 47: Thanks to the invention of the microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature of the
human cell.
A. deep understanding
B. in-depth studies
C. spectacular sightings
D. far-sighted views
Question 48: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables
together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the same pattern.
A. able to hear
B. physically abnormal
C. hard of hearing
D. obedient to parents
Question 49: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were
shortlisted for the interview.
A. small number
B. hand
C. class
D. small amount

Question 50: Now many people who shop at a health food store instead of a local supermarket are much more
likely to find a healthy, sugar-free beverage.
A. convenient to prepare
B. beneficial to health
C. harmful to health
D. full of preservatives

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid materials such as silicon
can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt (sodium
chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is
due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their
outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The
lost electrons are free to move in what is known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively
charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they
can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the
metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good
conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to
encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the
carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric
current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to
create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in
water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no
charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor
conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water
molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does
contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that

occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin
through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teachers. OUP

Question 51: Electrical conductivity is ______.
A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
Question 52: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ______.
A. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
B. the way its atoms bond together
C. the absence of free electrons
D. its atoms with a positive charge
Question 53: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. furthest from the inside
B. nearest to the inside
C. the heaviest
D. the lightest
Question 54: The atoms of a metal can bond together because ______.
A. they lose all of their electrons
B. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
C. electrons can flow in a single direction
D. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
Trang 4/6 – Mã đề 163


Question 55: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ______.
A. its charged ions can flow easily
B. it has free electrons

C. its charged ions are not free to move
D. it cannot create any charged ions
Question 56: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. charged particles
B. electrical insulators
C. electric currents
D. charged ions
Question 57: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ______.
A. only a small amount of fully charged particles
B. only a negative electric charge
C. no positive or negative electric charge
D. only a positive electric charge
Question 58: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because ______.
A. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
B. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
C. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity
D. the water contains too many neutral molecules
Question 59: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Some materials are more conductive than others.
B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
D. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.
Question 60: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Electrical Insulators
B. Electrical Energy
C. Electrical Devices
D. Electrical Conductivity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 61: A. survive

B. enlarge

C. struggle

D. occur

Question 62: A. preservative

B. conventional

C. reliable

D. intellectual

Question 63: A. property

B. customer

C. computer

D. energy

Question 64: A. environment

B. technology

C. predominance


D. superstition

Question 65: A. popular

B. impatient

C. decisive

D. observant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 66: After our discussion, we decided to take a later flight and so that we could spend more time with
A
B
C
D
the clients.
Question 67: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.
A
B
C
D
Question 68: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A
B
C
D
Question 69: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.
A

B
C
D
Question 70: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.
A

B

C

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 71: I had two job offers upon graduation, neither of which was appropriate for my qualifications.
A. The two jobs offered to me after my graduation didn’t suit my qualifications.
B. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.
C. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my qualifications.
D. Though I wasn't qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.
Trang 5/6 – Mã đề 163


Question 72: They arrived too late to get good seats.
A. As they got there too late, there were no good seats left.
B. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
C. They got good seats some time after they arrived.
D. They had to stand for the whole show.
Question 73: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me.
A. Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
B. I left home and didn’t realize how meaningful my family was.

C. Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me.
D. As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without.
Question 74: I forgot to lock the door before leaving.
A. I locked the door before leaving, but I forgot about it.
B. I left without remembering to lock the door.
C. I remembered that I left the door locked before going out.
D. I didn’t remember whether I locked the door before leaving.
Question 75: There is no question of changing my mind about resigning.
A. I should have changed my mind about resigning.
B. They asked me no question about resigning.
C. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning.
D. Nobody knows about my decision on resigning.
Question 76: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by car.
A. There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive.
B. The traffic is always so heavy that you’d better walk to work; it’s quicker.
C. It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day.
D. During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic.
Question 77: It’s difficult for me to understand what he implies.
A. I find it difficult to understand what he really means.
B. Understanding what he implies is found difficult.
C. What he implies is not very difficult to understand.
D. To understand what he really means is difficult to find.
Question 78: "Get out of my car or I'll call the police!" Jane shouted to the strange man.
A. Jane threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her car.
B. Jane plainly said that she would call the police.
C. Jane politely told the man she would call the police if he didn’t leave her car.
D. Jane informed the strange man that she would call the police.
Question 79: John said, “You’d better not lend them any money, Daisy.”
A. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money.
B. John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money.

C. John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money.
D. John advised Daisy not to lend them any money.
Question 80: This village is inaccessible in winter due to heavy snow.
A. Heavy snow makes it impossible to reach the village in winter.
B. Nobody likes to come to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
C. We cannot gain permission to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
D. We have no difficulty reaching this village in winter because of heavy snow.
---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

Trang 6/6 – Mã đề 163


BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐÁP ÁN
ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1
(Đáp án có 02 trang)

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Câu
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8

9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38

39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50

Mã đề
163
D
B
B
B
A
C
D
C
B
D
A
C
C
A
A

B
A
A
B
B
B
C
B
A
A
B
B
C
B
C
D
B
D
A
B
A
B
A
D
C
B
C
A
B
C

A
A
A
A
B

285
A
B
D
B
C
B
A
A
D
A
B
A
D
B
C
B
B
B
D
D
A
D
B

A
B
D
C
B
C
B
D
A
A
A
B
D
C
C
A
C
B
C
D
A
B
A
C
C
A
D

473
B

C
C
A
A
B
A
B
B
D
C
D
A
D
D
D
C
B
D
B
A
A
A
D
D
C
C
B
C
B
B

A
A
A
A
A
D
B
D
D
A
C
A
B
D
D
B
D
B
B

712
C
A
A
D
C
D
B
A
A

A
C
C
D
A
D
D
D
C
A
A
B
A
B
C
D
B
C
D
B
C
B
B
A
C
D
C
B
D
B

B
B
A
A
D
B
C
C
B
C
A

842
A
C
C
D
A
D
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
B
C
B
A

C
B
A
C
A
D
D
C
B
A
D
B
A
C
C
B
A
C
D
A
D
D
D
C
C
B
C
B
D
B

A
D
B

973
D
A
C
B
C
B
A
C
C
C
A
A
D
D
A
C
D
B
D
C
D
A
A
D
D

B
B
B
B
D
C
C
B
B
B
C
C
A
A
D
A
D
B
C
D
C
A
C
A
B


Câu
51
52

53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80

Mã đề

163
A
B
A
B
C
B
A
A
D
D
C
D
C
D
A
C
A
D
A
C
A
A
A
B
C
C
A
A
D

A

285
D
A
C
A
C
C
D
C
A
D
C
D
C
C
B
A
C
B
D
B
A
C
C
D
D
D
B

B
A
D

473
C
B
C
B
C
C
C
A
C
D
D
D
C
C
A
A
C
D
B
C
D
B
A
B
B

C
A
C
D
A

712
D
B
B
C
C
A
D
C
C
A
B
A
A
C
D
D
C
B
A
C
B
A
B

A
B
D
D
D
D
D

842
A
B
B
D
A
C
D
B
A
A
B
C
B
D
C
D
A
B
C
D
B

B
D
C
C
A
A
D
A
D

973
B
D
D
D
B
B
C
C
B
D
C
A
A
D
B
A
D
A
C

A
A
D
A
C
A
C
B
B
B
D


BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề có 6 trang)

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2013
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối A1
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 951

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:............................................................................

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services must be available all hours.

A. an active society
B. an inactive society C. a physical society D. a working society
Question 2: We'd better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. lie down
B. turn down
C. slow down
D. put down
Question 3: Her thoughtless comments made him very angry.
A. thoughtful
B. honest
C. pleasant
D. kind
Question 4: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. uncomfortable
B. miserable
C. calm
D. responsive
Question 5: She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity
organization.
A. kind
B. hospitable
C. mean
D. amicable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6:
Question 7:
Question 8:
Question 9:
Question 10:


A. reign
A. work
A. eleven
A. overboard
A. assure

B. vein
B. form
B. elephant
B. cupboard
B. pressure

C. reindeer
C. stork
C. examine
C. aboard
C. possession

D. protein
D. force
D. exact
D. keyboard
D. assist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 11: “How brave you are!” he said to the firemen.
A. He criticized the firemen for their discouragement.
B. He asked how brave the firemen were.

C. He blamed the firemen for their discouragement.
D. He praised the firemen for their courage.
Question 12: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I would have spoken English well if I could get that job.
B. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.
C. Despite my poor English, I was successful in the job.
D. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.
Question 13: A small hotel was the only choice of place to stay at during my trip to London.
A. I had different choices of where to stay during my trip to London.
B. I had no alternative but to stay at a small hotel during my trip to London.
C. There were a lot of hotels for me to choose from during my trip to London.
D. I was talked into staying at a small hotel during my trip to London.
Question 14: I would have worn the right shoes if I had known I was going to do all this climbing.
A. I did not go climbing because I did not have the right shoes.
B. As I did not know I was going to do so much climbing, I did not wear suitable shoes.
C. I would have gone on the climb if I had been wearing the right shoes.
D. I would love to go climbing, but I do not have any shoes that would be suitable.
Trang 1/6 - Mã đề thi 951