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Test GMAT 52

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ABOUT THIS EDITION OF THE GMAT®
This booklet contains the questions that were used to derive scores on the edition of the Graduate Management
Admission Test (GMAT®) with test code 52. If the first two digits of the test code on your answer sheet (item 5
on Side 1) are not 52, please contact ETS to send you the correct booklet to match your answer sheet. The
answer key follows the test questions. This booklet also contains instructions for calculating raw scores
corrected for guessing. These are followed by unique tables for converting raw scores to the reported scaled
scores for test code 52.

In this edition of the GMAT, the following essay and multiple-choice sections contributed to your scores:

Analytical Writing Assessment
Essay 1 Analysis of an Argument
Essay 2 Analysis of an Issue

Verbal Assessment
Section 2 Reading Comprehension
Section 5 Critical Reasoning
Section 7 Sentence Correction

Quantitative Assessment
Section 1 Problem Solving
Section 4 Data Sufficiency


Section 6 Problem Solving

GMAT Total
All six verbal and quantitative sections combined as one score

Section 3 in this edition of the GMAT contained trial or equating questions and does not contribute to
your score. Questions from this section are not included in this booklet.
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Analytical Writing 1
ANALYSIS OF AN ARGUMENT
Time—30 minutes
Directions:
In this section, you will be asked to write a critique of the argument presented below. You are NOT being asked to present
your own views on the subject.
Read the argument and the instructions that follow it, and then make any notes in your test booklet that will help you plan your
response. Begin writing your response on the separate answer sheet. Make sure that you use the answer sheet that goes with this
writing task.


The following appeared in a memorandum to the planning department of an investment firm.
“Costs have begun dropping for several types of equipment currently used to convert solar energy into electricity. Moreover, some
exciting new technologies for converting solar energy are now being researched and developed. Hence we can expect that solar
energy will soon become more cost efficient and attractive than coal or oil as a source of electrical power. We should, therefore,
encourage investment in Solario, a new manufacturer of solar-powered products. After all, Solario’s chief executive was once on the
financial planning team for Ready-to-Ware, a software engineering firm that has shown remarkable growth since its recent
incorporation.”
Discuss how well reasoned you find this argument. In your discussion be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of evidence
in the argument. For example, you may need to consider what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking and what alternative

explanations or counterexamples might weaken the conclusion. You can also discuss what sort of evidence would strengthen or refute
the argument, what changes in the argument would make it more logically sound, and what, if anything, would help you better
evaluate its conclusion.


NOTES
Use the space below or on the facing page to plan your response. Any writing on these pages will not be evaluated.













S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.




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Analytical Writing 2
ANALYSIS OF AN ISSUE
Time—30 minutes
Directions:
In this section, you will need to analyze the issue presented below and explain your views on it. The question has no
“correct” answer. Instead, you should consider various perspectives as you develop your own position on the issue.
Read the statement and the instructions that follow it, and then make any notes in your test booklet that will help you plan your
response. Begin writing your response on the separate answer sheet. Make sure that you use the answer sheet that goes with this
writing task.


“The best strategy for managing a business, or any enterprise, is to find the most capable people and give them as much authority as
possible.”

Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion stated above. Support your views with reasons and/or examples
from your own experience, observations, or reading.


NOTES
Use the space below or on the facing page to plan your response. Any writing on these pages will not be evaluated.













S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.


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ANSWER Sheet – Test Code 52
Section 1 Section 2 Section 4 Section 5 Section 6 Section 7
1. 1. 1. 1. 1. 1.
2. 2. 2. 2. 2. 2.
3. 3. 3. 3. 3. 3.
4. 4. 4. 4. 4. 4.
5. 5. 5. 5. 5. 5.
6. Not Scored 6. 6. 6. 6. 6.
7. 7. 7. 7. 7. 7.
8. 8. 8. 8. 8. 8.
9. 9. 9. 9. 9. 9.
10. 10. 10. 10. 10. 10.
11. 11. 11. 11. 11. 11.
12. 12. 12. 12. 12. 12.
13. 13. 13. 13. 13. 13.
14. 14. 14. 14. 14. 14.
15. 15. 15. 15. 15. 15.
16. 16. 16. 16. 16. 16.
17. 17. 17.
18. 18. 18.

19. 19.
20. 20.
21.
22.


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SECTION 1
Time—25 Minutes
16 Questions

Directions
: In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the best of the
answer choices given.
Numbers
: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures
: Figures that accompany problems in this section are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are
drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in
a plane unless otherwise indicated.
4. A certain psychologist charges $30 more for the first
hour of therapy than for each additional hour. If the
total charge to a patient who receives 6 hours of
therapy is $300, what is the total charge to a patient
who receives only 3 hours of therapy?
1. A study based on a random sample revealed that, on
average, 2 out of 5 adults have high blood pressure.
If these results hold true for the 580,000 adults in

City A, approximately how many adults in City A
have high blood pressure?


(A) $120
(A) 116,000
(B) $135
(B) 145,000
(C) $150
(C) 232,000
(D) $165
(D) 250,000
(E) $192
(E) 290,000


2. The sum
98
17
+
is between
5. If x + y = 1 and x – y = -1, what is the value of xy?

(A)
2
1
and
4
3


(A) -2
(B) -1
(B)
4
3
and 1
(C) 0
(C) 1 and
4
1
1

(D) 1
(E) 2
(D)
4
1
1
and
2
1
1


(E)
2
1
1
and 2
6. NOT SCORED


7. If
( )
()
093696
2
=+++++ xxx
, then x=

3. A certain state legislature consists of 124 members,
each of whom is either a Democrat or a Republican.
If there are 18 more Republicans than Democrats,
how many Republicans are in the legislature?

(A) -6
(B) -3

(C) 0
(A) 44
(D) 3
(B) 53
(E) 6
(C) 71
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(D) 80
(E) 106
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8. In 1982 and 1983, Company B’s operating expenses

were $12.0 million and $14.0 million, respectively,
and its revenues were $15.6 million and $18.8
million, respectively. What was the percent increase
in Company B’s Profit (revenues minus operating
expenses) from 1982 to 1983?
11. Last year 31 percent of Ace Book Company’s sales
revenue came from the sale of novels. Of the
remaining revenue,
3
1
was from the sale of
biographies. The company’s revenue from the sale of
novels was approximately how many times its
revenue from the sale of biographies?


(A) 3%
(A) 1.3
(B)
%
3
2
16

(B) 1.5
(C) 2.1
(C) 25%
(D) 2.5
(D)
%

3
1
33

(E) 3.1

(E) 60%
12. Three musical notes have frequencies x, y, and z,
respectively. If x, y, and z are positive,
z
y
y
x
=
, and
2x = z, what is y in terms of x?

9. If a and b are integers and , which of the
following CANNOT equal 0?
0≠b


(A) 2x
(A) ab
(B)
( )
x2

(B) a - b
(C) a + b

(C)
x
2
1

(D) ab -

2
b
(D)
x
2
1

(E)

22
ba +

(E)
x
3
2



y


B

LEAGUE RESULTS



Team Number of
Games Won
A
B
C
D
E
X
4
7
9
2
2





x
A (-8, 0) D C (20, 0)

AB = BC

AC = BD
13. According to the incomplete table above, if each of
the 6 teams in the league played each of the other

teams exactly twice and there were no ties, how
many games did team X win? (Only 2 teams play in
a game.)


10. What are the coordinates of point B in the xy-plane
above?


(A) 4
(A) (6, 12)
(B) 5
(B) (6, 28)
(C) 6
(C) (8, 20)
(D) 8
(D) (12, 20)
(E) 10
(E) (14, 28)
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14. When the integer k is divided by 12, the remainder is
3. Which of the following, when divided by 12, will
have a remainder of 6?
16. For all real numbers v, the operation
is
defined by the equation
*

v
3
*
v
vv −=
. If
( )
*
*
v 8=
,
then v=

I. 2k
(A) 15
II. 6k
III. 4k + 6
(B) 18

(C) 21
(A) I only
(D) 24
(B) II only
(E) 27
(C) III only

(D) I and II only

(E) I, II, and III





15. A rectangular tabletop consists of a piece of
laminated wood bordered by a thin metal strip along
its four edges. The surface area of the tabletop is x
square feet, and the total length of the strip before it
was attached was x feet. If the tabletop is 3 feet
wide, what is its approximate length, in feet?






(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 8
(E) 6

S T O P
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DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.


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SECTION 2

Time—25 minutes
18 Questions
Directions:
Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best answer
to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what
is stated
or implied in that passage.

Coral reefs are one of the most fragile, biologically
2. The passage suggests which of the following about
coral reef communities?
complex, and diverse marine ecosystems on Earth. This
ecosystem is one of the fascinating paradoxes of the bio-
Line
sphere: how do clear, and thus nutrient-poor, waters sup-
(A) Coral reef communities may actually be more
likely to thrive in waters that are relatively low in
nutrients.
(5
) port such prolific and productive communities? Part of the
answer lies within the tissues of the corals themselves.
Symbiotic cells of algae known as zooxanthellae carry out
(B) The nutrients on which coral reef communities
thrive are only found in shallow waters.
photosynthesis using the metabolic wastes of the corals,
thereby producing food for themselves, for their coral
(C) Human population growth has led to changing
ocean temperatures, which threatens coral reef
communities.
(10

) hosts, and even for other members of the reef community.
This symbiotic process allows organisms in the reef com-
munity to use sparse nutrient resources efficiently.
Unfortunately for coral reefs, however, a variety of
(D) The growth of coral reef communities tends to
destabilize underwater herbivore populations.
human activities are causing worldwide degradation of
(15
) shallow marine habitats by adding nutrients to the water.
(E) Coral reef communities are more complex and
diverse than most ecosystems located on dry
land.
Agriculture, slash-and-burn land clearing, sewage disposal,
and manufacturing that creates waste by-products all
increase nutrient loads in these waters. Typical symptoms
of reef decline are destabilized herbivore populations and
3. The author refers to “filter-feeding animals” (line 20)
in order to
(20
) an increasing abundance of algae and filter-feeding animals.
Declines in reef communities are consistent with observa-
tions that nutrient input is increasing in direct proportion to
(A) provide an example of a characteristic sign of
reef deterioration
growing human populations, thereby threatening reef com-
munities sensitive to subtle changes in nutrient input to
(B) explain how reef communities acquire sustenance
for survival
their waters.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with

(C) identify a factor that helps herbivore populations
thrive
(A) describing the effects of human activities on
algae in coral reefs
(D) indicate a cause of decreasing nutrient input in
waters that reefs inhabit
(B) explaining how human activities are posing a
threat to coral reef communities
(E) identify members of coral reef communities that
rely on coral reefs for nutrients
(C) discussing the process by which coral reefs
deteriorate in nutrient-poor waters

(D) explaining how coral reefs produce food for
themselves

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(E) describing the abundance of algae and filter-
feeding animals in coral reef areas


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5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
describes coral reef communities as paradoxical most
likely for which of the following reasons?
4. According to the passage, which of the following is a
factor that is threatening the survival of coral reef
communities?

(A) They are thriving even though human activities
have depleted the nutrients in their environment.
(A) The waters they inhabit contain few nutrient
resources.
(B) They are able to survive in spite of an
overabundance of algae inhabiting their waters.
(B) A decline in nutrient input is disrupting their
symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae.
(C) They are able to survive in an environment with
limited food resources.
(C) The degraded waters of their marine habitats
have reduced their ability to carry out
photosynthesis.
(D) Their metabolic wastes contribute to the
degradation of the waters that they inhabit.
(D) They are too biologically complex to survive in
habitats with minimal nutrient input.
(E) They are declining even when the water
surrounding them remains clear.
(E) Waste by-products result in an increase in
nutrient input to reef communities.






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Two divergent definitions have dominated sociologists'
discussions of the nature of ethnicity. The first emphasizes
the primordial and unchanging character of ethnicity. In
Line
this view, people have an essential need for belonging that
(5
) is satisfied by membership in groups based on shared
ancestry and culture. A different conception of ethnicity
de-emphasizes the cultural component and defines ethnic
groups as interest groups. In this view, ethnicity serves as
a way of mobilizing a certain population behind issues
(10
) relating to its economic position. While both of these

definitions are useful, neither fully captures the dynamic
and changing aspects of ethnicity in the United States.
Rather, ethnicity is more satisfactorily conceived of as a
process in which preexisting communal bonds and common
(15
) cultural attributes are adapted for instrumental purposes
according to changing real-life situations.
One example of this process is the rise of participation
by Native American people in the broader United States
political system since the Civil Rights movement of the
(20
) 1960's. Besides leading Native Americans to participate
more actively in politics (the number of Native American
legislative officeholders more than doubled), this movement
also evoked increased interest in tribal history and tradi-
tional culture. Cultural and instrumental components of
(25
) ethnicity are not mutually exclusive, but rather reinforce
one another.
The Civil Rights movement also brought changes in the
uses to which ethnicity was put by Mexican American
people. In the 1960's, Mexican Americans formed
(30
) community-based political groups that emphasized ancestral
heritage as a way of mobilizing constituents. Such emerg-
ing issues as immigration and voting rights gave Mexican
American advocacy groups the means by which to promote
ethnic solidarity. Like European ethnic groups in the
(35
) nineteenth-century United States, late-twentieth-century

Mexican American leaders combined ethnic with contem-
porary civic symbols. In 1968 Henry Cisneros, then mayor
of San Antonio, Texas, cited Mexican leader Benito Juarez
as a model for Mexican Americans in their fight for con-
(40
) temporary civil rights. And every year, Mexican Americans
celebrate Cinco de Mayo as fervently as many Irish
American people embrace St. Patrick's Day (both are major
holidays in the countries of origin), with both holidays
having been reinvented in the context of the United States
(45
) and linked to ideals, symbols, and heroes of the United
States.
6. Which of the following best states the main idea of
the passage?
(A) In their definitions of the nature of ethnicity,
sociologists have underestimated the power of
the primordial human need to belong.
(B) Ethnicity is best defined as a dynamic process
that combines cultural components with shared
political and economic interests.
(C) In the United States in the twentieth century,
ethnic groups have begun to organize in order to
further their political and economic interests.
(D) Ethnicity in the United States has been
significantly changed by the Civil Rights
movement.
(E) The two definitions of ethnicity that have
dominated sociologists' discussions are
incompatible and should be replaced by an

entirely new approach.
7. Which of the following statements about the first two
definitions of ethnicity discussed in the first
paragraph is supported by the passage?
(A) One is supported primarily by sociologists, and
the other is favored by members of ethnic groups.
(B) One emphasizes the political aspects of ethnicity,
and the other focuses on the economic aspects.
(C) One is the result of analysis of United States
populations, and the other is the result of analysis
of European populations.
D) One focuses more on the ancestral components of
ethnicity than does the other.
(E) One focuses more on immigrant groups than does
the other.
8. The author of the passage refers to Native American
people in the second paragraph in order to provide an
example of
(A) the ability of membership in groups based on
shared ancestry and culture to satisfy an essential
human need
(B) how ethnic feelings have both motivated and
been strengthened by political activity
(C) how the Civil Rights movement can help promote
solidarity among United States ethnic groups
(D) how participation in the political system has
helped to improve a group's economic situation
(E) the benefits gained from renewed study of ethnic
history and culture


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9. The passage supports which of the following
statements about the Mexican American community?
(A) In the 1960's the Mexican American community
began to incorporate the customs of another
ethnic group in the United States into the
observation of its own ethnic holidays.
(B) In the 1960's Mexican American community
groups promoted ethnic solidarity primarily in
order to effect economic change.
(C) In the 1960's leaders of the Mexican American
community concentrated their efforts on
promoting a renaissance of ethnic history and
culture.
(D) In the 1960's members of the Mexican American
community were becoming increasingly
concerned about the issue of voting rights.
(E) In the 1960's the Mexican American community
had greater success in mobilizing constituents
than did other ethnic groups in the United States.
10. Which of the following types of ethnic cultural
expression is discussed in the passage?
(A) The retelling of traditional narratives
(B) The wearing of traditional clothing
(C) The playing of traditional music
(D) The celebration of traditional holidays
(E) The preparation of traditional cuisine

11. Information in the passage supports which of the
following statements about many European ethnic
groups in the nineteenth-century United States?
(A) They emphasized economic interests as a way of
mobilizing constituents behind certain issues.
(B) They conceived of their own ethnicity as being
primordial in nature.
(C) They created cultural traditions that fused United
States symbols with those of their countries of
origin.
(D) They de-emphasized the cultural components of
their communities in favor of political interests.
(E) They organized formal community groups
designed to promote a renaissance of ethnic
history and culture.
12. The passage suggests that in 1968 Henry Cisneros
most likely believed that
(A) many Mexican Americans would respond
positively to the example of Benito Juárez
(B) many Mexican Americans were insufficiently
educated in Mexican history
(C) the fight for civil rights in the United States had
many strong parallels in both Mexican and Irish
history
(D) the quickest way of organizing community-based
groups was to emulate the tactics of Benito
Juárez
(E) Mexican Americans should emulate the strategies
of Native American political leaders
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The fact that superior service can generate a competitive
advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt
at improving service will create such an advantage. Invest-
Line
ments in service, like those in production and distribution,
(5
) must be balanced against other types of investments on the
basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and
increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a
par with its competitors because it provides service that
avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from
(10
) leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher
service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding
factor for customers only in extreme situations.
This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional
bank, which failed to improve its competitive position
(15
) despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had
to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize
the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking
industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching

banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to
(20
) determine whether it would attract new customers by pro-
ducing a new standard of service that would excite cus-

tomers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy. The
only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be
described to customers.
13. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) contrast possible outcomes of a type of business
investment
(B) suggest more careful evaluation of a type of
business investment
(C) illustrate various ways in which a type of
business investment could fail to enhance
revenues
(D) trace the general problems of a company to a
certain type of business investment
(E) criticize the way in which managers tend to
analyze the costs and benefits of business
investments
14. According to the passage, investments in service are
comparable to investments in production and
distribution in terms of the
(A) tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer
(B) increased revenues that they ultimately produce
(C) basis on which they need to be weighed
(D) insufficient analysis that managers devote to
them
(E) degree of competitive advantage that they are
likely to provide

15. The passage suggests which of the following about
service provided by the regional bank prior to its
investment in enhancing that service?

(A) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an
acceptable rate.
(B) It threatened to weaken the bank's competitive
position with respect to other regional banks.
(C) It had already been improved after having caused
damage to the bank's reputation in the past.
(D) It was slightly superior to that of the bank's
regional competitors.
(E) It needed to be improved to attain parity with the
service provided by competing banks.
16. The passage suggests that bank managers failed to
consider whether or not the service improvement
mentioned in line 19
(A) was too complicated to be easily described to
prospective customers
(B) made a measurable change in the experiences of
customers in the bank’s offices
(C) could be sustained if the number of customers
increased significantly
(D) was an innovation that competing banks could
have imitated
(E) was adequate to bring the bank’s general level of
service to a level that was comparable with that
of its competitors.



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13
17. The discussion of the regional bank (lines 13-24)
serves which of the following functions within the
passage as a whole?
(A) It describes an exceptional case in which
investment in service actually failed to produce a
competitive advantage.
(B) It illustrates the pitfalls of choosing to invest in
service at a time when investment is needed more
urgently in another area.
(C) It demonstrates the kind of analysis that
managers apply when they choose one kind of
service investment over another.
(D) It supports the argument that investments in
certain aspects of service are more advantageous
than investments in other aspects of service.
(E) It provides an example of the point about
investment in service made in the first paragraph.
18. The author uses the word "only" in line 23 most
likely in order to
(A) highlight the oddity of the service improvement
(B) emphasize the relatively low value of the
investment in service improvement
(C) distinguish the primary attribute of the service
improvement from secondary attributes
(D) single out a certain merit of the service
improvement from other merits
(E) point out the limited duration of the actual service
improvement




S T O P
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DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.


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