TEST 11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. study

B. success

C. surprise

D. sugar

Question 2. A. weather

B. hearty

C. meadow

D. breath

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. discuss

B. teacher

C. airport

D. window

Question 4. A. visible

B. solution

C. surrounding

D. arrival

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 5. I feel anxiously because this is the first time I come to the
interview
A

B

C

D

Question 6. Because vitamins are contained in a wide variety of foods,
people seldom
A

B

C

lack of most of them
D
Question 7. Please arrive early so that we were able to start the meeting on

time.
A

B

C

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8. During our stay in Venice, we bought a _________ bottle
A. glass lovely perfume

B. lovely

glass perfume
C. lovely perfume glass

D. glass

perfume lovely
Question 9. They are university professor who ______ in the history of the
Russian empire
A. specialization

B. specially

C. specialize


D. special

Question 10. Owing to the fog, his flight from Karachi was ________
A. belated

B. overdue

C. unscheduled

D. unpunctual


Question 11. Don’t bother me while I _________ the exercise
A. am doing

B. did

C. do

D. was doing

Question 12. Dinosaurs are believed _______ many years ago
A. die out

B. to have died out

C. having died out

D. to die out


Question 13. With this microwave oven, it isn’t ________ to heat food
A. time- consuming

B. useful

C. convenient

D. warm

Question 14. How old were you when you learnt how _____ a bike?
A. ride

B. rode

C. to ride

D. riding

Question 15. Please cut my hair ______ the style in this magazine
A. the same length like

B. the same length as

C. the same long like

D. the same long as

Question 16. Hurry up! We have only _______ little time
A. a


B. an

C. the

D. any

Question 17. Neither Ms. Chen _____ Mr. Martinez was able to attend the seminar
A. neither

B. nor

C. and

D. or

Question 18. The twins look so much alike that almost no one can _____ them ______
A. tell- away

B. take- on

C. tell- apart

D. take- apart

Question 19. She plays the guitar _____ as her sister
A. as beautifully

B. more beautifully

C. as beautiful


D. the most beautifully

Question 20. Many species of wild life are _______ of extinction
A. at risk

B. on the verge

C. on the side

D. in dangers

Question 21. Sarah was very excited _______ going to college
A. on

B. with

C. about

D. to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 22. “My father’s much better now” – “___________”
A. Oh, I’m pleased to hear it

B. Good news for you

C. Oh, really? The doctor must be very good


D. Wonderful. Congratulations

Question 23. “Thank you very much for a lovely party” – “_______”
A. Cheers

B. Have a good day C. You are welcome

D. Thanks

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 24. I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly
A. cleverly

B. reasonably

C. gently

D. brutally


Question 25. The museum was overrun with tourists so I decided to go back another day
A. having no tourists

B. not having enough tourists

C. crowded with tourists

D. having tourists running


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26. To calm myself down before the interview, I decided to wait a while in a nearby
park and read the newspaper.
A. to stop feeling excited

B. to stop my fear

C. to stop my uneasiness

D. to fight my hunger

Question 27. In order to better understand English, the students incorporated grammar,
vocabulary and speaking in their studies
A. combined

B. granted

C. scrutinized

D. skipped

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 28. If I didn’t have a car, I’d have to walk five blocks to
work every day.
A. My car needs some work on it
B. I drive to work in my car every day
C. After work every day, I walk five blocks

D. I have to walk five blocks to get to work
Question 29. It was such a big meal that we couldn’t
A. The meal was too very big for us to finish
B. The meal was too big for us to finish it
C. The meal was too big for us to finish
D. The meal was such big that we couldn’t finish it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 30. Arsenal played well. They didn’t win the match
A. Arsenal played well and won the match
B. Arsenal didn’t win the match although they played well
C. Arsenal didn’t play well so they didn’t win the match
D. If Arsenal had played well, they could have won the match
Question 31. He grew older. He became more and more forgetful


A. The older he grew, the more forgetful he became
B. He grew older and more and more forgetful
C. He became more forgetful and older
D. He grew older when he became more forgetful
Question 32. “No, it’s not true. I didn’t steal the money!”
A. Jean denied having stolen the money
B. Jean admitted stealing the money
C. Jean refused to steal the money
D. Jean did not intend to steal the money.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37
In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a

partner. You have to do a single task which usually lasts about 3 minutes. One
possible task is “problem solving”, which means you have to look at some
visual information and then (33) _______ the problem with your partner. You
may be shown photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or
computer graphics and it is (34) ________ that you study them carefully. If
necessary, check you know exactly what to do by politely asking the
examiner to (35) ______ the instruction or make them clearer.
While you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very (36)
_______ and you should ask your partner questions and make suggestions if he
or she is not saying much. If either of you have any real difficulties, the
examiner may decide to step in and help. Normally, however, you will find
plenty to say, which helps the assessor to give you a fair mark. This mark
depends on your success in doing the task by (37) _______ with your partner,
which includes taking turns in giving opinions and replying appropriately,
although in the end it may be possible to “agree to disagree”
Question 33. A. argue

B. discuss

C. talk

D. have

Question 34. A. essential

B. needed

C. helpful

D.


Question 35. A. insist

B. copy

C. tell

D. repeat

Question 36. A. little

B. much

C. few

D. many

C. co- operating

D. opposing

successful

Question 37. A. competing B. struggling


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
from 38 to 42.
“Where is the university?” is a question many visitors to Cambridge

ask, but no one can give them a clear answer, for there is no wall to be found
around the university. The university is the city. You can find the classroom
buildings, libraries, museums and offices of the university all over the city.
And most of its members are the students and teachers or professors of the
thirty- one colleges.
Cambridge was an already developing town long before the first
students and teachers arrived 800 years ago. It grew up by the river Granta,
as the Cam was once called. A bridge was built over the river as early as 875.
In the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries more and more land was used
for college buildings. The town grew much faster in the nineteenth century
after the opening of the railway in 1845. Cambridge became a city in 1951
and now it has the population of over 100,000. Many young students want to
study at Cambridge. Thousands of people from all over the world come to visit
the university town. It has become a famous place all around the world.
Question 38. Why do most visitors come to Cambridge?
A. To study in the colleges in Cambridge

B. To see university

C. To use the libraries of the universities

D. To find the classroom buildings

Question 39. Around what time did the university begin to appear?
A. In the 8th century

B. In the 9th century

C. In the 13th century


D. In the 15th century

Question 40. Why did people name Cambridge the “city of Cambridge”?
A. Because the river was very well- known
B. Because there is a bridge over the Cam
C. Because it was a developing town
D. Because there is a river named Granta
Question 41. After which year did the town really begin to develop?
A. After 800

B. After 875

C. After 1845

D. After 1951

Question 42. From what we read we know Cambridge is ______
A. visited by international tourists

B. a city without wall

B. C. a city of growing population

D. a city that may have a wall around it


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
from 43 to 50.
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as

more real than speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing
secondary to language. Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving
evidence) for at least 5000 years, but they have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever
since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although
imperfectly. Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we
all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped
physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human being cannot be prevented from doing
so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and
useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages
with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those
skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter.
One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the
records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us
civilized.
Question 43. We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech
because _______
A. writing is secondary to language
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. it has become very important in our culture
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings
Question 44. The author of the passage argues that ________
A. speech is more basic to language than writing
B. writing has become too important in today’s society
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
D. all languages should have a written form
Question 45. According to the passage, writing ______
A. is represented perfectly by speech


B. represents speech, but not perfectly

C. developed from imperfect speech

D. is imperfect, but less so than speech

Question 46. Normal human beings _______


A. learn to talk after learning to write

B. learn to write before learning to talk

C. learn to write and to talk at the same time

D. learn to talk before learning to write

Question 47. Learning to write is ______
A. easy

B. too difficult

C. not easy

D. very easy

Question 48. In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example
of ______
A. people who learn the rudiments of speech


B. severely handicapped children

C. intelligent people who couldn’t write

D. people who speak many languages

Question 49. In author’s judgment, _________
A. writing has more advantages than speech
B. writing is more real than speech
C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
Question 50. The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means _____
A. rudiments

B.

B. skills

C. domination

D. benefit