TRƯỜNG THPT THẠCH THÀNH I
TỔ NGOẠI NGƯ

THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA(LẦN 3)
Năm học 2017-2018
Môn: Tiếng Anh 12
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian: 60 phút
(Đề gồm 5 trang)
Tháng 4 năm 2018
Họ, tên thí sinh:……………........……………Số báo danh:…….............. Phòng thi…………… (Mã đề 302)
PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (8.0 POINTS)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
Question 1: A. attacks
C. trays
B. repeats
D. roofs
Question 2: A. challenge
B. chocolate
C. church
D. stomach
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress
in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. bamboo
B. famous
C. mention
D. product
Question 4: A. disapprove
B. accidental
C. corporation
D. proportion

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence that closest in the meanig to the
following questions.
Question 5: I’m like my mum, whereas my brother looks like my dad.
A. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes after my dad.
B. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes over my dad.
C. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes care my dad.
D. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes on my dad.
Question 6: You’d better write the date on your calendar. You might forget about the exam.
A. You’d better write the date on your calendar, so you might forget about the exam.
B. You’d better write the date on your calendar although you’d better the date on your calendar
C. you might forget about the exam, so you’d better write the date on your calendar.
D. you might forget about the exam, if you’d better write the date on your calendar.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following
questions.
Question 7. If the current rate of deforestation continues, the world’s rainforests within 100 years.
A. would vanish
B. vanish
C. will vanish
D. would have vanished
Question 8. No sooner
my car than the alarm went off.
A. the thief had touched
B. the thief touched
C. had the thief touched
D. touched the thief
Question 9. “
tears, I ran back to my room, thinking I would never feel at hom at college.
A. Fighting for
B. Fighting with
C. Fighting back

D. Fighting out
Question 10. Since the flood, the number of homeless people
dramatically.
A. has increase
B. had increased
C. increase
D. are increasing
Question 11. the police have begun an
into the accident which happened this morning.
A. investigating
B. investigatory
C. investigate
D. investigation
Question 12. The Indonesian Red Cross Headquarters in Banda Aceh was washed
by the Asia tsunami
in 2004.
A. through
B. off
C. out
D. away
Question 13. Today many species of plant and animal are in
of extinction.
A. danger
B. endangered
C. endanger
D. dangerous
Question 14.
that he does not want to say any longer.
A. So homesick does Jonathan feel
B. Jonathan feels such homesick

C. Homesick through Jonathan may feel
D. A little homesick does Jonathan feel
Question 15. I had to
my trip because something urgent had come up.
A. blow up
B. pull in
C. leave out
D. call off
Question 16. -Alice: “What shall we do this weekend?”
-Carol: “
’’
A. I went out for dinner
B. Oh, that’s good


C. Let’s go out for dinner
D. no problem
Question 17. -Jenifer: “You really have a beautiful blouse, Katherine, I’ve never seen such a perfect thing on
you”
-Katherine: “
, Jenifer . That’s a nice compliment”
A. Thank you
B. not at all.
C. I disagree with you
D. You’ve got to be kidding.
Question 18. The more challenging the exercises are,
we feel.
A. the less bored
B. the least bored
C. the less boring

D. the least boring
Question 19. The world’s first computer
by the University of Pennsylvania in 1946.
A. is built
B. has built
C. was built
D. were built
Question 20. By the end of this year, Lan
English for three years, but he will still need more
training and experience before he masters the languages.
A. will have been studying
B. has been studying
C. has studied
D. will be studying
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. “ That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about”
A. behaving cleverly
B. behaving nice
C. behaving improperly
D. good behavour
Question 22. Mary’s imagination was kindled by the exciting stories her grandmother told her.
A. smother
B. detest
C. enemy
D. discourage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23. Professor Smith was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. changes

B. variety
C. conversation
D. difference
Question 24. He goes to school on time once in a blue moon.
A. regulary
B. very often
C. very rarely
D. sometimes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 35 to 44.
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (23) _____ human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (24) _____ on consuming two-thirds
of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying
the lonely resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (25)
_____ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able
to recover completely. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences.
As a result, the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers
and consumption are (26) _____ increasingly heavy demands on it.
The Earth's natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,
warmth, shelter and minerals to (27) _____ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how
we use the resources, they will go indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon
run out and everyone will suffer.
Question 25. A. Although
B. Still
C. Yet
D. Despite
Question 26. A. carries
B. repeats
C. follows

D. continues
Question 27. A. neither
B. sooner
C. rather
D. either
Question 28. A. doing
B. making
C. having
D. taking
Question 29. A. maintain
B. stay
C. hold
D. keep
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the question
There are two main hypothesis when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern
humans. There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern
humans. The ‘Out of Africa’ theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species


around 150,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as
the Neandertals. The other model, known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits
far more ancient and diverse roots for our kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo
sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a single species spread across the
Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic and cultural exchange.
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil
evidence, and supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution
scholars. The vast majority of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations,
and although some small progress has been made in recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears
to support multi-regionalism, the chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is

quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early
modern human skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years
old have suggested that both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and
African predecessors. But the early modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal
traits, and the early modern Australians showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia.
Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists continues , as supporters of the two hypotheses
challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
(Source: www.coursehero.com)
Question 30. The passage primarily discusses which of the following?
A. Evidence that supports the "Out of Africa" theory.
B. The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate
C. Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate
D. That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate
Question 31. The word "emergence" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. complexity
B. appearance
C. development
D. decline
Question 32: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______.
A. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage
B. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence
C. the "Out of Africa" model has had more support from scholars
D. the multi-regional model goes back further in history
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations
B. Early modern Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia
C. Both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species
D. Early modern human skulls all support the same conclusions
Question 34: The word "their" in the passage refers to ______.

A. Middle Easterners and Africans
B. skulls
C. traits
D. central Europeans and Australians
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses?
A. Both hypotheses regard Neanderthals to be the predecessors of modern humans
B. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses
C. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an original location
D. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other
Question 36: It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future
B. the debate will interest historians to take part in
C. the debate is likely to be less important in future
D. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down
Question 37. According to the passage, the multi-regional evolution model posits far more diverse
roots for our kind because ______.


A. evidence from examinations of early modern human skulls has come from a number of
different parts of the world
B. DNA from Neanderthal appears to support multi-regionalism
C. populations in different regions were linked through genetic and cultural exchange
D. this has been supported by fossil evidence
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One group, the
Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present – day North Dakota. They had large
villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect themselves
more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable farmers
stored from one year to the next.

The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to produce
the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons. Winter often lingered; autumn
could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer, drought, heat, hail,
grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They
began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from
the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be harvested, the crop required
labor and vigilance.
Harvesting proceeded in two stages. In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before
it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated for
immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal – skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest
of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or
stored for alter use in underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans
protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompany hunger.
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of the
green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored them.
Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and
tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men.
Question 38. What is the main topic of the passage ?
A. The agricultural activities of a North American Society
B. Various ways corn can be used.
C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop
D. Weather conditions on the western plains.
Question 39. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to ____________.
A. guard their supplies of food
B. share farming implements
C. protect themselves against the weather
D. allow more room for growing corn
Question 40. The word “enabled” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. covered

B. isolated
C. helped
D. reminded
Question 41. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?
A. They developed new varieties of corn.
B. They could grow crops despite adverse weather.
C. They developed effective fertilizers.
D. They could grow crops in most types of soil.
Question 42. The word “consumption” in the paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. conversation
B. decay
C. eating
D. planting
Question 43. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women?
A. clearing fields
B. Harvesting corn
C. Harvesting squash
D. Planting corn
Question 44. The word “disaster” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. catastrophe
B. history.
C. control
D. avoidance
Question 45. The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to _________.
A. women
B. seeds
C. slices
D. the Mandans
Question 46. Which of the following crops was cultivated primarily by men?



A. Squash
B. Sunflower
C. Corn
D. Tobacco
Question 47. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans _________.
A. planned for the future
B. valued individuality
C. were open to strangers
D. were very adventurous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 48. Dogs that are trained to lead the blind must be l oyalty , intelligent and calm.
A
B
C
D
Question 49. George hasn’t completed the assignment yet, and Mary hasn’t too .
A
B
C
D
Question 50. The foreign student advisor recommended that she studied more English before
A
B
enrolling at the university.
C
D
THE END



TRƯỜNG THPT THẠCH THÀNH I
TỞ NGOẠI NGƯ
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề gờm 5 trang)
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

B
D
A
D
A
C
C
C
C
A

11
12
13

14
15
16
17
18
19
20

D
D
A
A
D
A
A
A
C
A

21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30


THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA(LẦN 3)
Năm học 2017-2018
Môn: Tiếng Anh 12
Thời gian: 60 phút
Tháng 4 năm 2018
KEY MA 302
C
31
B
41
B
A
32
B
42
C
B
33
D
43
B
C
34
D
44
C
C
35
A
45

C
A
36
D
46
D
D
37
C
47
A
B
38
A
48
D
D
39
A
49
D
C
40
C
50
B