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ĐỀ SỐ 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from 
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:A. ploughed B. coughed C. laughed D. photographed

Question 2:A.bushes B. offices C. blades D.branches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in 
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. diverse B. require C. oblige D. caring
Question 4: A. countryman B. sacrifice C. supportive D. marvelous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in 
each of the following questions.

Question 5:Every fuel has their own particular temperature at which it begins to burn.

A.to burn B.Every fuel C.at which D.their own

Question 6:As his car had beenbroken down, she gave him a lift to work .
A B C D

Question 7: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been workinglike a teacher for a
A B C D

long time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following 
questions.

Question 8: You should try to cooperate __________ that organization __________ every way.

A. to – in B. with – in C. with – for D. to – for

Question 9:While in Europe on vacation, the twins roamed the countryside on their bikes.

A. rounded B. rocked C. wandered D. rustled

Question 10: There was a long period without rain in this area last year so the harvest was poor.

A. famine B. flood C. drought D. epidemic

Question 11: I have written her 3 letters but she hasn‟t answered __________them. 
A. any ofB.some ofC.some D.any

Question12:Nearly all of the reporters__________ the press conference had questions __________.
A.attended/asked B. attending/to ask C. attending/asked D. attended/to ask
Question 13:Neither the nurses nor the doctor __________ there when the patient died.

A.are B.is C.were D. was

Question 14:Can you keep calm for a moment? You_________ noise in class!

A. are always making B. are always made

C.always make D.have always made

Question15:Children! It‟s time you ___________ away those toys.

A.tidy B.should tidy C. tidied D.to tidy

Question 16: ___________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped with the project.
A.If it had been B.Hadn‟t it been C. If it hadn‟t been D.had it been

Question17:Doctor: “You __________ take more than two of these pills at once. Three might be fatal”.

A. mustn‟t B.needn‟t C.don‟t D.mightn‟t

Question18:“Could you please turn off the stove? The potatoes _________ for at least 30 minutes.

A.boils B.were boiling C.are boiling D. have been boiling

Question19: The boy has a collection of _____________.

A. old valuable Australian stamps B. valuable Australian old stamps
C. valuable old Australian stamps D. old Australian valuable stamps

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each 
of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Ann: “__________!” Sarah: “Thank you. I‟m glad you like it.”
A. What a lovely hat you have! B.How lovely hat you are!
C.How your hat is lovely! D.What lovely your hat is!
Question 21: Tom: “ My first English test was not as good as I expected.”

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A. Good Heavens! B. That‟s brilliant enough!

C. Never mind, better job next time. D. It‟s okay, don‟t worry.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: You may jot down your qualifications and experience that can relate to the job.

A.turn down B. note down C.pull down D.put down

Question 23: Many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost.

A.replaced completely B.renewed completely

C.reduced completely D. removed completely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Why, according to pessimists, will the security of the earth be threatened?

A.scientists B. optimists C.conservationists D.enthusiastists
Question 25: She is carrying out a health project for the disadvantaged in inner cities and rural areas.

A. urban B. mountainous C. suburban D. coastal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the 
following questions.

Question 26: “Why didn‟t your girlfriend attend the party?” he said.
A. He asked me why my girlfriend didn‟t attend the party.

B. He asked me why didn‟t my girlfriend attend the party.
C. He asked me why my girlfriend hadn‟t attended the party.
D. He asked me why had my girlfriend not attended the party.
Question 27: “Are you waiting for your exam result?” she said.
A. She asked me was I waiting for my exam result.

B. She asked me if I was waiting for my exam result.
C. She asked me whether was I waiting for my exam result.
D. She asked me whether I was waiting for your exam result.
Question 28: Fighting back tears, Sarah ran back to her room.
A. Sarah ran back to her room because of a fight.

B. Sarah tried not to cry and ran back to her room.

C. When someone had a fight, Sarah ran back to her room.
D. Fighting made Sarah cry and run back back to her room.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of 
sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn‟t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‟t pass it.

C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

Question 30: We didn‟t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn‟t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

(31)______ more and more countries become industrialized, there will be more and more
competition for petroleum for cars, home heating, and industry. While (32)_______petroleum contributes
greatly to acid rain, it is less polluting than coal. Unfortunately, petroleum is more expensive than coal and
the supply of petroleum will eventually (33)________ out. Therefore, there will be more and more pressure
to burn coal for energy. Coal is a much dirtier energy source than petroleum. Since we already know
(34)_______ destructive acid rain is, it is very important that we increase our efforts to find a non-polluting
source of energy as quickly as possible (35)_______ we can avoid further environmental damage.

Question 31: A. Although B. Even C.As D. Also

Question 32:A. burning B. flowing C. blowing D. releasing

Question 33: A. use B. eat C. run D. make

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Question 35:A. so that B. but C. if D. because

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals
and tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by humans
on foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of information
between two places. The telegram and telephone set the stage for more modem means of communication.
With the invention of the cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.

For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with family
and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text messages. The definition of a cell phone is more
specific. It is a hand-held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small
special areas called cells.

Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplexcommunication devices. They make it possible for
two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular phones because
they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a half-duplex
communication device because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device
because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has
more than a thousand channels. A walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about
a mile. A cell phone can transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic
company called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell
Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable communication device. Martin Cooper
won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April 3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone
call to his opponent at AT&T while walking down the streets of New York City. People on the sidewalks
gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper's phone was called A Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping
2.5 pounds (as compared to today's cell phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces)

After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone available to
the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phones for commercial use. The early
cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $ 3,500. In 1977, AT&T

constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second
cellular phone system was started in the Washington D.C. and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for
cell phones to become available for general public use. Today, there are more than sixty million cell phone
customers with cell phones producing over thirty billion dollars per year.

Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A.The increasing number of people using cell phone.
B.How Cooper competed with AT&T.

C.The history of a cell phone.

D.The difference between cell phones and telephones.
Question 37: What definition is true of a cell phone?
A.A hand-held wireless communication device.
B.A version of walkie-talkie.

C.The first product of two famous corporations.
D.Something we use just for playing games.
Question 38: What is wrong about a walkie-talkie?
A.It has one channel.

B.It was first designed in 1973.

C.It can be used within a distance of a mile.
D. Only one person can talk at a time.

Question 39: The word "duplex" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A.quick B.modern C. having two parts D.having defects

Question 40: To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?

A.A person on New York street. B.The director of his company.
C. A member of Bell Laboratories. D.His assistant at Motorola.
Question 41: How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today's cell phones?

A. ten times as heavy as B.as heavy as

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Question 42: When did Motorola introduce the first cell phones for commercial use?

A. in 1981
B. in 1983

C.in the same year when AT& T constructed a cell phone system
D.in the early years when he first made a cell- phone call

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness
Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first
American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1925. However, Addams is best known as the
founder of Hull House.

Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in
her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her
to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s Jane Addams traveled to Europe. While she was in
London, she visited a 'settlement house' called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her
friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of slums in Chicago in 1899. Hull House

provided a day care center for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses.
Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a
meeting place for clubs and labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were
well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their education and it
provided a training ground for careers in social work.

Before World War I , Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper
poll that asked, "Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?" Jane Addams
was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America's involvement in World War I,
however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams
was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams
joined in the movement for women's suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman
Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the Advancement of
Colored People (NAACP) and was president of the Women's International League for Peace and Freedom.
Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of cancer in 1929.

Question 43: With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned ?
A. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman

B. A woman's work for social reform and world peace
C. The early development of Social Work in America
D. Contributions of educated women to American society

Question 44: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. The work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams.
B. Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House.

C. Those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills.

D. Jane Addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country.
Question 45: The word "commitment" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. involvement B. obligation C. dedication D. enthusiasm

Question 46: Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because ________.

A. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop careers in social work
B. she traveled to Europe in the 1880s

C. she visited Toynbee Hall

D. she was invited by a 'settlement house' in Chicago

Question 47: The word "their" in paragraph two refers to ________.
A. children of working mothers B. middle - class women

C. visiting nurses D. labor union members

Question 48: The word 'contemporaries' in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. people of the same time B. famous peple still alive

C. elected officials D. people old enough to move

Question 49: According to the passage, Jane Addams' reputation was damaged when she _________ .
A. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions

B. joined in the movement for women's sufferage
C. became a founding member of the NAACP
D. opposed America's involvement in World War I

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ĐỀ SỐ 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the 
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. included B. wanted C. decided D. noticed 
Question 2. A. perfume B. persuade C. return D. purse

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in 
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. effort B. survive C. enlarge D. disguise
Question 4. A. reliable B. conventional C. insurance D. intellectual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in 
each of the following questions.

Question 5: One of the most effective method of helping children learn new vocabulary words is to

A B
teach unfamiliar words used in a text prior to the reading experience.

C D

Question 6: Vietnamese students may encounter some problems when studying in abroad.
A B C D

Question 7: Daisy is reading her essay because she has a test tomorrow. She should be studying.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each 
of the following questions

Question 8: “ Hello. My name‟s Richard” _ “__________”

A. Are you Richard? B. Mine‟s John, hello
C. Yes, I know D. Oh, ok thank you

Question 9: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!” Sue: “__________”

A. Don‟t mention it. B. How dare you? C. I‟m afraid so. D. Thank you.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 10: Organizing some extra-curricula activities has occupied a lot of my time recently. 
A. taken in B. taken up C. taken over D. taken after
Question 11: Everything was in a thorough mess.

A. utter B. full C. complete D. appalling

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE 
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 12: John failed to stop smoking though he had had a bad cough.

A. successful B. was able C. could D. succeed
Question 13: This shouldn‟t be too taxing for you.

A. comfortable B. demanding C. easy D. relaxing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following 
questions.

Question 14: We bought some_________.

A. German lovely old glasses C. German old lovely glasses
B. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
Question 15: This is the third time James__________ the volunteer program to the village.

A. joins B. joined C. has joined D. has been joining

Question 16: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is,________.

A. the more heat it retains B. the heat it retains more
C. it retains the more heat D. more heat it retains
Question 17: He was so awkward, but luckily only one of the dinner _________ broken.

A. plate was B. plates have been C. plates was D. plares is
Question 18: We should participate in the movements _________ the natural environment.

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Question 19: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ___ what she missed when she was away.

A. cut down on B. put up with C. catch up on D. take up with

Question 20: The workers'claim for a ten percent pay rise has been under ________ by the government.

A. consideration B. inquiry C. regard D. application

Question 21: The _________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a pose smile on her face.

A. stylistic B. stylishly C. stylish D. stylistically

Question 22: I haven't got a passport, _______ means I can't leave my country.

A. which B. that C. this D. it

Question 23: The goverment should take ________ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.

A. step B. measures C. changes D. solutions

Question 24: Only because she had to support her family _________ to leave school.

A. that Alice decides B. did Alice decide C. does Alice decide D. Alice decide
Question 25: George won five medals at the competition. His parents_________ very proud of him.

A. can‟t be B. can‟t have C. must have been D. could have been
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
answer to each of the questions.

New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our
leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away,
we take our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use
of e-mail, voice mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.

Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free
them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and
socially – exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family,

and even just „goofing off‟.

But here we are at the start of the 21st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom
times in human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to
liberate us have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It 
would seem that technology almost never does what we expect.

In „the old days‟, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their
offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as
they traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today‟s
highly competitive job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer
hours and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices.
As a result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They 
feel pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and
longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job
security.

Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and
e-mail messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which
faculty, friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of
time spent on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use.

This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic
research to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more
difficult and stressful rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious
of it – then something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our
understanding of how it should benefit us. From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher

Question 26: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our
lives easier__________.

A. have brought us complete happiness
B. have fully met our expectations
C. have not interfered with our privacy

D. have turned out to do us more harm than good

Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?
A. They make our life more stressful. B. They bring more leisure to our life.

C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used.
Question 28: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”.

A. unforgettable B. unimaginable C. predictable D. foreseeable
Question 29: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that__________.

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B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work

C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices

Question 30: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to__________.

A. employers B. employees C. workers D. tasks
Question 31: This passage has probably been taken from__________.

A. a science review B. a political journal C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine
Question 32: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Expectations and Plain Reality B. Benefits of Technology
C. Research on the Roles of Computers D. Changes at the Workplace

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or 
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816
million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If
(33)________ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year‟s consumption would stretch to the moon
and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television
every year at a(n) (34)________ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more
money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.

(35)________ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and
some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many
cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh,
lovely - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar!

Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (36)________ sugar appears on the
ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel.

There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made
(37)________ whole grains and are sugar-free.

From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo

Question 33: A. to lay B. laying C. lay D. laid

Question 34: A. charge B. average C. cost D. expense
Question 35: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. Furthermost

Question 36: A. tall B. large C. high D. many

Question 37: A. by B. from C. at D. in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
answer to each of the questions.

Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of
globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over
globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can
grow while its problems can be solved.

On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international
trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater 
freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich
countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced
taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by
selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new 
technology to spread and benefit others.

On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty,
inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most
developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but
because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South
Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism.
These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries that are just
beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive.

Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of
money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by

the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the
economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of
the country.

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nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will
result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living
standards and undermining environmental regulations.

One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be

regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.
From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD]

Question 38: It is stated in the passage that_________.

A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself

B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
C. suppoters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers
D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
Question 39: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that__________.

A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
B. there will be less competition among producers
C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries

Question 40: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “___________”.

A. removed B. solved C. offered D. distributed

Question 41: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “_________”. 
A. makes sellers responsive to any changes

B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
C. forces sellers to go bare-footed

D. prevents sellers from selling new products

Question 42: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because
of__________.

A. their neo-liberal policies B. their help to developing countries
C. their prevention of bubbles D. their protectionism and subsidies

Question 43: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are__________.
A. successful economies B. young companies
C. development strategies D. young industries
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.

Question 45: The debate over globalization is about how__________.
A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
B. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization

C. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
D. to terminate globalization in its entirely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to 
each of the following questions

Question 46: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too. 
A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese.

B. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at.
C. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese.

D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese.
Question 47: It’s a bad line. Do you want me to give you a ring later?

A. Can I call you later? B. I would like to give you a ring as a present.
C. Would you like to become my wife? D. Can I give the ring back to you later?
Question 48: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.

A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.
B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn‟t finish the test.

C. Although she didn‟t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of 
sentences in the following questions

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B. We‟d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later.

C. They‟ll probably arrive later so that we‟d better leave them a note.
D. We‟d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.

Question 50: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past. 
A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past.

C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.

_______THE END________

ĐỀ SỐ 3

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:A. missed B.laughed C. stopped D. closed

Question 2:A.tooth B. boot C. smooth D. look

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:A. disappear B.arrangement C. apponent D.contractual
Question 4:A. invention B. delicate C.domestic D.bacteria

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

Question 5: With the victory over Germany in the final match, Brazil became the first team wonthe trophy

A B C

five times.
D

Question 6: : Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade in the history of
A B C

weather records.
D

Question 7:All of his friends were surprisingat his success
A BC D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 8:Whistling or clapping hands to get someone„s attention is considered ______ and even rude in
some circumstances.

A. suitable B. unnecessary C. appropriate D. impolite

Question 9: No _______ water polo player except _______ goalie can hold the ball with both hands.

A. a / the B. the / Ø C. the / a D. Ø / the

Question 10: The more expensive the car is, the ___________________it is.

A. Less buyers B. more comfortable C. more quickly D. less economical
Question 11: John was the youngest boy ___.

A. that was joined the club B. to be admitted to the club

C. admitted to the club D. joining the club

Question 12: The X-ray____________ in 1895.

A. is said to have been discovered B. is said to be discovered
C. said to have been discovered D. said to discover
Question 13: It is of great importance to create a good impression _______ your interviewer.

A. on B. about C. for D. at

Question 14: Swimming produces both_______________and physical benefits.

A. psychology B. psychological C. psychologically D. psychologist
Question 15: There should be an international law against _____.

A. reforestation B. afforestation C. forestry D. deforestation
Question 16: Conservationists ______that experiments on animals be stopped.

A. recommended B. banned C. said D. complained

Question 17: It‟s nice I am now in London again. This is the second time I ______ there.

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Question 18:At the end of this month, scientists at the institute will conduct their AIDS research, the results

of __________will be published within 6 months.

A. which B. whom C. that D. it

Question 19: I can‟t ______________up with your bad behavior any more.
A. put B. stand in for C. sit out D. stand up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.

Question 20:– Max: “How lovely your pets are!” - Min: “ _________”
A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are
C. can you say that again D. I love them, too
Question 21:- “Oh, I‟m really sorry!”. - “____________________”.
A.It was a pleasure. B. That„s all right. C.Thanks D.Yes, why?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Many plant and animal species will be in danger if we don't take any actions to protect them.

A. on purpose B. at ease C. at stake D. in advance

Question 23:People of diverse backgrounds now go to different places for pleasure, business or education

A. distinctive B. different C. isolated D. distant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24:1. We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.

A. lively B. frequented C. accessible D. revealed

Question 25:3. There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.
A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.

Question 26:When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high. 
A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.

B. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

Question 27:But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family business. 
A. Richard‟s father didn‟t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
B. Richard didn‟t take over the family business because his father didn‟t retire.

C. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
D. His father retire early, but he still ran the family business.

Question 28:No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back. 
A. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.

B. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
C. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.
D. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work. 
A. If he takes his father‟s advice, he will not be out of work.

B. If he had taken his father‟s advice, he would not be out of work.

C. If he had taken his father‟s advice, he would not have been out of work.
D. If he took his father‟s advice, he would not be out of work.

Question 30: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam. 
A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam
C. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

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The development of writing (31) ___ a huge difference to the world and might see it as the beginning of the
media. Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably numbers have been discovered in China that date
from around 4000 BC. Hieroglyphics and other forms of "picture writing" developed in the (32)_____ around
Mesopotamia (modern-day Iraq), where the ancient Sumerian civilization was based, from around 3300 BC
onwards. However, the first true alphabet was used by the Phoenicians around 1050 BC. Their alphabet
had 22 letters and it is estimated that it lasted for 1000 years. The first two signs were called "aleph" and
"beth", which in Greek became "alpha" and "beta", which gave us the modern word "alphabet" The modern
European alphabet is based on the Greek and (33) ____ to other European countries under the Romans. A

number of changes took place as time passed. The Romans added the letter G, and the letter J and V were
(34) ____ to people in Shakespeare's time. If we (35) ____the history of punctuation, we also find some
interesting facts.

Question 31. A. did B. had C. made D. took

Question 32. A. distance B. area C. length D. earth
Question 33. A. spread B. appeared C. was D. occurred
Question 34. A. infamous B. unpopular C. unknown D. hidden
Question 35. A. look into B. bring on C. make off D. hold up

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart was born in 1756 in Austria. He would become one of the most talented
composers to ever live. He started to write and play music before he was even eight years old.

As a three-year-old, Mozart already loved music. He would listen to his father teach his older sister. She
was learning to play the piano. Mozart looked up to his sister, and copied her playing.

Mozart‟s father noticed Mozart‟s talent in music. He began to teach his son. Mozart was a fast learner.
Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs.

Before long, Mozart wrote hís own musical composition at the age of five. He knew how to read and write
music before he could read or write words! His first piece was very short.

Soon, Mozart‟s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe. Mozart played
music in the cities. He played for nobles and royalty. Many times he played music with his sister. During the
tour, Mozart met some musicians and learned from them. One of the musicians was Johann Christian
Bach, the youngest son of Johann Sebastian Bach.

When he was eight years old, Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra. Before long, he finished
writing his first symphony.

Mozart died on December 5, 1791. He was only 35 years old, but he composed more than 600 musical
pieces. More than 200 years later, Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever.

36. When did Mozart start to write and play music?

A. before he was five years old B. before he was eight years old
C. when he was 10 years old D. when he was 35 years old

37. The passage descibes the early years of Mozart‟s life. Which of the following events happened first?
A. Mozart wrote his first own musical compositionB. Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra
C. Mozart toured all the major musical centers in Western EuropeD. Mozart listened to his father teach his
sister how to play music

38. Mozart was a very gifted child. What evidence from the passage supports this conclusion?
A. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs

B. While touring different cities throughout Europe Mozart played for nobles and royalty.
C. Mozart was only 35 years old when he died

D. Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever
39. Who taught Mozart how to play music?

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40.The word “composed” in the passage is the closest in meaning to_________.

A. played B. taught C. purchased D. wrote

41. Where would the passage most likely be found?

A. in a novel about MozartB. in a book of poetry about classical musicians

C. in a book of biographies of classical musiciansD. in a newspaper article from 1791
42. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Mozart composed more than 600 musical pieces during his life.

B. Mozart was a very talented child and grew up to become one of the greatest composers
C. Mozart‟s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe
D. Mozart‟s father taught both Mozart and his sister how to play music.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Some companies seem to have a knack for revolutionizing any market that they enter. They

produceinnovative new products that sell in huge numbers, change people‟s expectations, and become
world famous. In the movie world, for example, you may know Pixar and Dreamworks. Online, you are
probably familiar with Google and Facebook. In the computer world, there is one name that instantly
comes to mind. That company is Apple.

The beginning of Apple is a legendary story. In 1976, twenty-one year old Steve Jobs started the company
from his family home in California. He worked with computer scientist Steve Wozniak, and businessman
Ronald Wayne, to develop, build, and market a personal computer, their first product. These first

computers were not very slick or professional, but they were definitely innovative. The Apple I was the
first low-cost computer system to have built-in video capabilities, This means it was able to display its
output on a TV screen.

Following the success of Apple I, Apple launched a second computer in 1977. This model came with its
own monitor and keyboard and was called the Apple II. This new model‟s main selling point was that it
could display information in color, another first for low-cost computer system. The popularity of the Apple II
increased when it was chosen as the platform for the first spreadsheet program, called VisiCalc. This
made the Apply II popular with business users as well.

Apple‟s next innovative success came in January 1984 when it released the Apple Macintosh. It was the
first commercially successful computer to feature a mouse and a graphical user interface (GUI). Before the
Macintosh, computer users operated their computer by typing instructions on a keyboard. Now they could
operate their computer by pointing and clicking on the GUI with a mouse. The Macintosh inspired many
similar operating system, including Microsoft Windows.

Visionary founder, Steve Jobs, left Apple in 1985 and the company‟s reputation for innovation seemed to
leave with him. However, when Jobs returned to his old job in 1996, he quickly revitalized the company.
Most people are familiar with Apple‟s success since Job‟s return. Starting in 1998 and continuing to the
present day, Apple has released several new and very popular products, including the iMac (1998), the
iPod (2001), the iPhone (2007), and finally the iPad (2010). All these products combined stylish good
looks with a powerful, simple to use, operating system- a combination that is very popular with consumers.
These days, Apple‟s reputation for innovation is second to none.

43. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that____________________

A. some people have heard of Pixar and DreamWorksB. Pixar and DreamWorks are two movie-making
companies

C. Pixar and DreamWorks are similar companies to AppleD. many people have heard of Pixar and
DreamWorks

44. Why does the writer mention Pixar and DreamWorks, Google, and Facebook in paragraph 1?

A. They are very popular with kids and teenagers.B. They are examples of innovation and success.
C. They are related to computer systemsD. Apple developed the four companies.

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46. What did Apple launch in 1977 ?

A. Apple I B. a new TV screen C. Apple II D. Apple Macintosh
47. What was special about Apple‟s Macintosh ?

A. It was the first computer to have built-in videoB. It was the first computer with a monitor and keyboard
C.It could display its output on a TV screenD. It had a mouse and a graphical user interface.

48. Which sentence about Apple is true ?

A. Steve Wozniak is now in charge of the companyB. It created the first spreadsheet program called
VisiCalc

C. It released the iPad before the iMacD. Apple was first started in Steve Job‟s home.
49. Which sentence about Apple is NOT true ?

A. The Apple Macintosh „s GUI inspired Microsoft WindowsB. Steve Jobs left the company but later
returned

C. It has reputation for innovationD. It created Google and Facebook
50. What can be the best title for the passage ?

A. The Sweetest Apple B. Apple- The Most Innovative
C. Computers in Shape of Apple D. Apple to Change the World

________THE END_________

ĐỀ SỐ 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. shifts B. thinks C. soups D. joins

2. A. proved B. surveyed C. discussed D. rained

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. confine B. maintain C. oblige D. certain

4. A. diversity B. traditional C. attractiveness D. generation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

5. (A) While I (B) drove home, I (C) turned on the radio and (D) heard the news about the accident.
6. No one (A) came to see (B) us since we (C) bought these (D) bloodhounds.

7. At 9:00 p.m. last Friday, my boss (A) called me and (B) told me I (C) have to go into the office (D) the
next day.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

8. My mother takes the responsibility for running the household.

A. moving quickly C. making the house run C. going D. managing
9. If you are walking across the school yard and see your teacher approaching you, a small friendly wave is
appropriate.

A. greeting B. waving at C. coming near D. following

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following.

10. For a big party like this, you should wear formal clothes like a suit and tie, not jeans and pullover.

A. casual smart B. casual C. long D. warm

11. Don‟t be so nervous! Try to answer the questions clearly.

A. worried B. quiet C. calm D. stressful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.

12 – “Can you give my regards to your family?”_” ………..”

A. My parents will be happy B. By all means C. Thank you, I will D. Not at all
13. Hung: ………..

Hoa : Thanks. I‟m glad you like it. My sister gave it to me yesterday.

A. What a fashionable dress you are wearing! B. Oh, I like your fashionable dress.
C. I think you have a fashionable dress. D. Your fashionable dress must be
expensive.

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14. I am a _______ student this year.

A. twelve-grade B. twelve‟s-grade C. twelfth-grade D. twelfths-grade
15. My younger brother is rather _______, but he is always obedient and hard-working.

A. mischievous B. caring C. helpful D. generous

16. The change of the plan is strange, but I don‟t think it‟s _______.

A. significance B. significant C. significantly D. signifies
17. It‟s not easy to change people‟s _______ toward a certain problem.

A. attitude B. idea C. opinion D. thinking

18. Non-verbal _______ such as waving, nodding or shaking of the head also have cultural meanings.

A. signs B. hints C. marks D. signals

19. Then, he _______ something that his boss _______ some time before.

A. remembered/ had said B. had remembered/said

C. remembered/ was saying D. was remembering/ said
20. In my family, all of us must share household _______.

A. appliances B. duties C. chorus D. chores

21. When the teacher wants to get your attention, he/she can _______ at you.

A. show B. wave C. point D. nod

22. We always believe that love always _______ marriage because if we have love, we will have a happy
marriage.

A. goes after B. goes by C. follows D. precedes

23. Lan: When does the luncheon take place?

Hoa: It ……… in the dining room right now.

A. serves B. served C. is serving D. is being served

24. In ………….. or elementary grades, students may spend all the day with one teacher.

A. main B. chief C. primary D. secondary

25. ……… school helps children develop their intellectual and physical skills and learn to get along
with others.

A. Nurse B. Nurses C. Nursing D. Nursery

26. If you …………..to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now.

A. listen B. listened C. will listen D. had listened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.

27. I have never played golf before.

A. This is the first time I have ever played golf. B. I used to played golf but I gave it up
already.

C. It‟s the last time I played golf. D. It‟s the first time I had played golf.
28. “ What made you change your mind?” Joe asked.

A. Joe asked what made me change my mind B. Joe wanted to know what had changed
my mind.

C. Joe asked what had made me change my mind. D. Joe asked what changed my mind.
29. We have planned to leave for Hanoi tomorrow.

A. We will leave for Hanoi tomorrow. B. We are leaving for Hanoi tomorrow.
C. We will be going for Hanoi tomorrow. D. We will have left for Hanoi tomorrow.
30. The last time he went swimming was three years ago.

A. I swam a lot when we were three years ago. B. I hadn‟t been swimming before three
years ago.

C. I went swimming for three years. D. I haven‟t been swimming for three years.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Studying abroad and studying in your own country both have definite (31)_____ for a student. Living
in another country can be an exciting experience (32)_____ everything seems new and different. The
challenge of living in a new environment can give you courage and self confidence, (33)______ . if you want
to learn (34)_____ language, living abroad is a great way to do that because you can read magazines or
newspapers, watch television programs, or make friends with people who are (35)______ …

31. A. disadvantages B. drawbacks C. benefits D. profits

32. A. because B. that C. but D. so

33. A. either B. however C. even D. too

34. A. other B. others C. another D. one another

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15
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Our eyes and ears might be called transformers because they sense the light and sound around us
and turn them into electrical impulses that the brain can interpret. These electrical impulses that have been
transformed by the eye and ears reach the brain and are turned into messages that we can interpret. For
the eye, the process begins as the eye admits light waves, bends them at the cornea and lens, and then
focuses them on the retina. At the back of each eye, nerve fibers bundle together to form optic nerves,
which join and then split into two optic tracts. Some of the fibers cross, so that part of the input from the
right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, and vice versa. The process in the ear is carried out
through sensory cells that are carried in fluid-filled canals and that are extremely sensitive to vibration.
Sound that is transformed into electricity travels along nerve fibers in the auditory nerve. These fibers form
a synapse with neurons that carry the messages to the auditory cortex on each side of the brain.

36. According to the author, we might call our eyes and ears “transformers” because:
A. They sense light and sound. B. They create electrical impulses
C. The brain can interpret the input. D. The messages travel in the brain.
37. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “admits”?

A. selects B. interprets C. lets in D. focuses on

38. The word “bundle” could be best replaced by which of the following:

A. group B. grow C. branch D. settle

39. The word “split” could be best replaced by which of the following:

A. tear B. fracture C. separate D. crack

40. According to the passage, when input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, what
happens?

A. The nerve fibers bundle together. B. The optic nerves split.

C. The retina receives light waves. D. Input from the left field goes to the right side.
41. The phrase “carried out” could be best replaced by which of the following:

A. brought over B. taken away C. accomplished D. maintained

42. According to the passage, optic nerves eventually:

A. split B. bend C. admit light wave D. become messages

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The most common causes of tsunamis are underwater earthquakes. To understand underwater
earthquakes, you must first understand plate tectonics. The theory of plate tectonics suggests that the
lithosphere, or top layer of the Earth, is made up of a series of huge plates. These plates make up the
continents and seafloor. They rest on an underlying viscous layer called the asthenosphere.

Think of pie cut into eight slices. The pie crust would be the lithosphere and the hot, sticky pie filling
underneath would be the asthenosphere. On the earth, these plates are constantly in motion, moving along
each other at a speed of 1 to 2 inches (2.5-5 cm) per year. The movement occurs most dramatically along
fault lines (where the pie is cut). These motions are capable of producing earthquakes and volcanism,
which, when they occur at the bottom of the ocean, are two possible sources of tsunamis.

When two plates come into contact at a region known as a plate boundary, a heavier plate can slip under a
lighter one. This is called subduction. Underwater subduction often leaves enormous “handprints” in the
form of deep ocean trenches along the seafloor. In some cases of subduction, part of the seafloor
connected to the lighter plate may “snap up” suddenly due to pressure from the sinking plate. This results in
an earthquake. The focus of the earthquake is the point within the Earth where the rupture first occurs, rock
break and the first seismic waves are generated. The epicenter is the point on the seafloor directly above
the focus.

When this piece of the plate snaps up and sends tons of rock shooting upward with tremendous force, the
energy of that force is transferred to the water. The energy pushes the water upward above normal sea
level. This is birth of a tsunami. The earthquake that generated the December 26, 2004 tsunami in the
Indian Ocean was a 9.0 on the Richter scale- one of the biggest in recorded history.

43. Which of the following best states the topic of this text?

A. The birth of a tsunami B. The magnitude of tsunamis
C. Tsunamis in the Indian Ocean D. Series of huge plate on earth
44. According to the first paragraph, continents and seafloor are part of _____________.

A. lithosphere B. asthenosphere C. plate tectonics D. huge plates
45. The word “which” in the passage refers to _____________.

A. these motions B. earthquakes and volcanism

C. fault lines D. tsunamis

46. It can be inferred from the passage that the earthquake will never occur when _____________
A. the subduction is evidenced. B. seismic waves are generated.

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47. The place within the Earth where the first rupture occurs is called _____________.

A. the epicenter B. the vocal C. the focus D. the center

48. The word “tremendous” in the passage is CLOSEST in meaning to _____________.

A. remarkable B. huge C. challenging D. explosive

49. Which of the following natural disasters happening in Indonesia (in the Indian Ocean) is related to the
fault movement of plate tectonics?

A. Volcanic eruptions B. Soil erosion C. Forest fires D. Floods
50. The following is mentioned in the text about tsunamis, EXCEPT that they are _____________
A. predictable following any incidence of earthquakes.

B. close to the rise of sea levels from the sinking plate.
C. connected to deep ocean trenches along sea floors.
D. related to strong movements of plate tectonics.

-- THE END--

ĐỀ SỐ 5

I. Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions.

1: A. eventually B. capacity C. altogether D. particular
2: A. appearance B. ambitious C. performance D. telephone
II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.

3. A. boots B. books C. stops D. learns

4. A. student B. supportive C. curriculum D. tutor
III. Choose the underlined word/ phrase that needs correcting

5. Foreign students who are doing (A) a decision about which (B) school to attend (C) may not know exactly
where the choices (D) are located.

6. Could (A) you mind telling me ( B ) the way to ( C) the nearest (D) post office?

7. The children were playing(A) last night outdoors (B) when it began (C) to rain very hard (D).
IV. Choose the word which best fits each gap of the sentence

8. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several_______ .
A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates

9. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were destroyed, including two by
Picasso.

A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy

10. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very_______.
A. open – minded B. kind – hearted C. narrow- minded D. absent – minded

11. Communities in remote areas are extremely________ to famine if crops fail.

A. defenseless B. helpless C. disappointed D. vulnerable
12. I could hear voices but I couldn‟t ________what they were saying.

A. turn up B. bring about C. make out D. try out
13. John is intelligent but he ...common sense.

A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants

14. His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man ...

A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know

C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know

15. Instead of ...about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.

A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited
16. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ...

A. another B. other C. the another D. the other

17. Tony never comes to class on time and ...

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18. David painted the room black. It looks dark and dreary. He ...chosen a different color.

A. had to B. should have C. must have D. could have been

19. In most_______ developed countries, up to 50% of_______ population enters higher education at some
time in their lives.

A. the/  B. /  C. the/ a D.  /the

V. Choose the word / phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined one in this sentence.
20. Catherine rejected many suitable men before settling on Tom.

A. said no to B. accepted C. met D. saw

21. Those companies were closed due to some seriously financial problems.

A. taken off B. put away C. wiped out D. gone over

V. Choose the word / phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined one in this sentence.
22. Adding a garage will enhance the value of the house.

A. stabilize B. alter C. diminish D. increase

23. It‟s extremely rude not to say “Thank you” when you are given something.

A. polite B. casual C. careless D. embarrassing

VI. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D which has the same meaning with the original sentence.
24. Be he rich or poor, she will many him.

A. She doesn‟t want to marry him because he is poor. C. She wants to marry him if he is rich.
B. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor. D. She will marry him however poor he may
be.

25. When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words.

A. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.
B. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say.

C. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.
D. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.
26. It‟s a pity that you didn‟t tell us about this.

A. I wish you had told us about this C. I wish you have told us about this.
B. I wish you told us about this D. I wish you would tell us about this.

27. My brother and I went to that school.

A. I went to that school and my brother, too. C. I went to that school and so my brother did.
B. I went to that school and so did my brother. D. I went to that school and so my brother did, too.
28. Wealthy as they were, they were far from happy.

A. They were as wealthy as they were happy. B. They were not happy as they were wealthy.
C. Even if they were wealthy, they were not unhappy. D. Although they were wealthy, they were not
happy.

VII. Choose the correct response to this situation.

29. Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”.

A. Great B. Oh, that's annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun
30. “ You have a good voice! You sang so beautifully!” - “...”

A. Your compliment isn‟t corrects B. Your compliment is encouraging.

C. Don‟t joke me D. Better than you are thinking

VIII. Read the passages and choose the word/ phrase that best fits each of the blanks.
Many people travel to New Zealand to learn about the Maori culture. The Maori were the

(31)…………inhabitants of New Zealand, arriving on the island around 1,000 to 1,500 years ago. Probably
the best known aspects of Maori culture is the haka, the Maori war dance. The main reason

(32)…………..this is that the New Zealand rugby team still dances this haka before all of their games. This,
in addition (33)………..the fact that their rugby team is very good, has (34)………. New Zealand‟s rugby
team one of the most famous teams in rugby. The intention of the haka is to intimidate the enemy. The
dance seeks to intimidate people through stomping, loud shouts, and frightening facial (35)…………
Perhaps the most intimidating part of the haka is that it is done in perfect unison by all members.
31. A. origin B. original C. originate D. originally

32. A. for B. of C. by D. about

33. A. with B. to C. of D. at

34. A. got B. taken C. made D. done

35. A. express B. expressive C. expressively D. expressions

IX. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 36- 42.
The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600

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Pierre-Charles L. Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction continued for
several more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was

habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in
1800, only six rooms had been completed.

The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the
paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban

reconstructed the house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north
portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and
electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated that it was beyond
repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However,
the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5.4 million dollars
for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline Kennedy launched a program to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine
Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.

The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain
107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor's suite, a dentist's office, a large
solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which
the president works is not located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The
White House stands on 16 acres of park-land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood
groves.

36. The word “contest” is closest in meaning to

A. hearing B. tournament C. competition D. computation
37. What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction? 
A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners.

B. It did not adhere to the original estimate.
C. It was not included in the architectural design.

D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home.
38. The word "grounds" is closest in meaning to

A. high ground B. several lots C. hills D. site
 39. It can be inferred from the passage that

A. George Washington often used the White House steps
B. George Washington contributed to the White House design
C. George Washington never lived in the White House

D. The White House was excluded from the city planning

40. The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building continued
A. up to 1800 B. after 1800 C. until 1814 D. until 1792

41. The word "dilapidated" is closest in meaning to

A. ornate B. run-down C. old-fashioned D. obscure

42. What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph?
A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century.

B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.
C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century.
D. Each president added new features to the building's conveniences.

X. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 43- 50.
Today‟s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the

future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines

have already been developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed
natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option
presently available.

Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable
source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering
everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighbourhood cars, electronic delivery
vans, bikes and trolleys.

As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are
focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging
facilities will need to be as common as today‟s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in
commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they
stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in
transportation centres might be reserved for electric cars.

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hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five
times the number of vehicles that can be carried by freeway today.

43. The author‟s purpose in the passage is to...

A. criticize conventional vehicles B. support the invention of electric cars

C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the
future

44. The passage would most likely be followed by details about...

A. the neighbourhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses

B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future
45. The word „compact‟ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to...

A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D. concentrated

46. In the second paragraph, the author implies that...
A. everyday life will stay much the same in the future.

B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.

D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future

47. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be ...

A. much larger than they are today C. common as today‟s gas stations
B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices
48. The word „charging‟ in this passage refers to...

A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit cards

49. The word „commuters‟ in paragraph 4 refers to...

A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily travelers
50. The word „hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to...

A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D. combination

ĐỀ SỐ 6

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in 
pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. broad B. load C. road D. boat

2. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary 
stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. accuracy B. Canada C. banana D. countryside

4. A. contaminate B. continent C. conquer D. comfortable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following 
questions.

5.Never having flied(A) before, Mark wasvery (B) excited as (C) he drove to the (D)airport. 
6. If classes had finished (A) sooner(B), I would go(C) to Canada last month(D).

7. The (A) law of that countryforbids anyone (B)under (C)eighteen driving(D)a car.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
8.Although he was completely ________, he produced the most beautiful table.

A. unable B. incapable C. uneducated D. untrained

9. It is doubtful whether newspapers………. governments to any great degree.

A. draw B. influence C. catch D. attract

10. Many companies………. to take part in illegal logging.

A. denied B. rejected C. protested D. refused

11. The music………..the composer‟s joy of life

A. arouses B. appeals C. expresses D. attracts

12. By the 1300s, the Spanish had learnt that gunpowder could____ propel an object with incredible force.
A. using it to B. used to C. be used to D. been used to

13. Rodney____ for the company for very long before he was promoted.

A. hadn’t been working B. hasn‟t been working C. didn‟t used to work D. didn‟t work. 
14. “Do you think Harry will want something to eat after he gets here?”

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A. be sleeping B. are sleeping C. will be sleeping D. have been sleeping

15. Mr. Lee was upset by____ him the truth.

A. us not tell B. we didn‟t tell C. not to tell D. our not having told. 
16. ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped win the project.
A. Had it been B. Hadn‟t it been C. If it hadn’t been D. If it had been
17. I didn‟t see anyone but I felt as though I____.

A. am watched B. have been watched C. was being watched D. be watched

18. Let‟s leave early, so we‟ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can‟t risk____ in heavy traffic during

rush hour.

A. to hold up B. holding up C. having held up D. being held up 
19. He _____ a big fortune when he was young, so he didn‟t have to work hard.

A. came into B. came up C. came across D. came round

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following 
exchanges.

20. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______”

A.Sorry,the seat is taken B. Yes, I am so glad C. No, thanks. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
21. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I‟ll write to you when I arrive there."

A. Good luck B. Have a go C. Have a good trip D. Good bye

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each 
of the following questions.

22.I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.

A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have connection
23. I couldn‟t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there.

A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each 
of the following questions.

24:She could not hide her dismay at the result.

A. disappointment B. depression C. happiness D. pessimism
25:Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional.

A. voluntary B. free C. pressure D. mandatory

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following 
questions.

26. They arrived too late to get good seats.

A. When they arrived, the good seats were already taken. 
B. They got good seats some time after they arrive.
C. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
D. They had to stand for the whole show.

27. He started to play the guitar five years ago.
A. He has been playing the guitar since five years.
B. he has been playing the guitar for five years.

C. He has been starting to play the guitar for five years.
D. He has started playing the guitar for 5 years.

28. The switch was too high for him to reach.
A. He wasn‟t tall enough for reaching the switch.
B. He wasn’t tall enough to reach the switch. 
C. He wasn‟t enough tall to reach the switch.
D. He wasn‟t so tall that he can reach the switch.
29. It‟s possible to cross the road because of the traffic.

A. The traffic makes people be impossible to cross the road.
B. The traffic makes everyone be impossible to cross the road.
C. The traffic makes it be impossible to cross the road.

D. The traffic makes it impossible to cross the road. 
30. I would prefer you not to smoke in here.

A. I‟d rather you shouldn‟t some in here. B. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here. 
C. I‟d rather you not to smoke in here. D. I‟d rather you don‟t smoke in here.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks 
from 31 to 35.

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found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became much safer for
children. Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (35) ………. Some people will be able to avoid
medical problems that are unavoidable today.

31. A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away

32. A. awake B. keen C. aware D. concerned

33. A. how B. what C. which D. when

34. A. reason B. origin C. source D. cause

35. A. speed up B. advance C. accelerate D. run

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees‟ homes and offices. For
employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the
location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when 
the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers.
A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But 
although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when
Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn‟t
telecommuting become more popular?

Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of
many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered 
across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed,
thereby complicating the manager‟s responsibilities.

It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that
they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting.
Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get
away from the office.

36. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. The advantages of telecommuting. B. A definition of telecommuting.

C. An overview of telecommuting. D. The failure of telecommuting.
37. The phrase “of no consequence” means____.

A. of no use B. of no good C. unimportant D. irrelevant
38. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT____.
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision. 
C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home.

39. The word “executives“ in line 10 refers to____.

A. telecommuters B. managers C. employees D. most people
40. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees____.
A. need regular interaction with their families.

B.are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.

C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office. D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
41. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is____.

A. a telecommuter B. the manager C. a statistician D. a reporter 
42. When Business Week published “ The Portable Executive “, it implied that

A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.

B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.

C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic. D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a
career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time
and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and
rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences
virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the
factors to consider.

Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin
by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and

surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do
you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or
wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which
ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank themin order of importance to you.

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in concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other
hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the
country.

If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as
insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your
experience, additional training, promotions and commission.

Don‟t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber
does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or
demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas
plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will
likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make
today need not be your final one.

43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____.
A. emphasize that each person‟s answers will be different.

B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.

D.indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. 
44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____.

A. questions B. answers C. features D.jobs

45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____.

A. discovering B.considering C. measuring D. disposing

46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want
to live in a big city?

A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
47. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that____.

A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.

B.insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. 
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.

D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that____.

A.you may want to change careers at some time in the future. 
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.

49. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.

B.To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.

C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.

D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?

A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.

C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D.Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.

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ÐỀ SỐ 7

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from 
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. allowed B. passed C. argued D. raised

Question 2: A. machine B. watching C. kitchen D. matches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in 
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. confidence B. suitable C. responsible

secondary

Question 4: A. verbal B. polite C. common D. social

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in 
each of the following questions.

Question 5: A large number of Indian men agrees that it is unwise to confide in their wives.
A B C D

Question 6: Chemistry has become one of the most important factor in the textile industry.
A B C D

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A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following 
questions.

Question 8: In the last hundred years, traveling _______ much easier and more comfortable.

A. becomes B. has become C. became D. will become

Question 9: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but _____
primary cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.

A. a / the B. Ø / a C. the / a D. Ø / Ø

Question 10: This factory produced______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. as twice as

many B. twice as many as C. twice as many D. as twice many
Question 11: Jason asked me _______ me the book the day before.

A. if who gave B. if who has given

C. that who had given D. who had given

Question 12: The prisoner is thought _____ by climbing over the wall.

A. to escape B. to escape C. had escaped D. to have escaped
Question 13: Many modern medicines are derived _______ plants and animals.

A. on B. from C. for D. in

Question 14: The success of the 22nd SEA Games had a great contribution of
many _______ volunteers.

A. support B. supporter C. supportive D. supportively

Question 15: Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in
particular.

A. powerful B. optimistic C. stagnant D. pessimistic

Question 16: According to a recent survey, most people are on good ________ with their neighbors.
A. relations B. acquaintance C. relationships D. terms

Question 17: Most of the computers in the laboratory are ________ now.

A. out of order B. out of work C. out of working D. out of function
Question 18: Leila ________ the information she wanted in her reference books.

A. took up B. looked after C. took out D. looked up
Question 19: I decided that I couldn‟t put ____ their thoughtless behavior any

longer.

A. up with B. up C. off D. through to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each 
of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - “________________.”
A. You are telling a lie B. I don‟t like your sayings

C. Thank you for your compliment D. Thank you very much. I am afraid
Question 21: “Oh, I‟m really sorry!” - “______________”

A. Thanks B. It was a pleasure C. That‟s all right D. Yes, why?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. depended B. required C. divided D. paid

Question 23: That matter is so confidential that it must not be discussed outside the office.
A. secret B. important C. interesting D. alarming

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.

A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant.

Question 25: I didn't think his comments were very appropriate at the time.

A. exact B. right C. correct D. unsuitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to 
each of the following questions.

Question 26: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.

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C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.

D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

Question 27: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom." said our manager.
A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.

B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.

D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 28: Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.

A. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night.
B. Mr. Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.
C. Mr. Smith, who I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
D. Mr. Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of 
sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.

A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot. 
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot. 
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot. 
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.

Question 30: You‟d better take the keys. It‟s possible I‟ll come home late.
A. You‟d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.
B. I‟ll probably come home late so that you‟d better take the keys.
C. If I come home late, you‟d better take the keys.

D. You‟d better take the keys in case I come home late

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

In Italy, people and personal relationships are more important than time and schedules, which are
flexible. People may be late for an appointment, although they are more (31) ____ in the north of the
country than in the south. To north Europeans their way of working may seem disorganized and (32) ____.
In meetings they don't feel they have to follow the agenda or speak only in turn. They interrupt (33) ____ a
lot and often talk at the same time. They are excellent communicators and are very expressive in their use
of body language. Appearance and good manners are important, so you should dress well and (34)____
polite, but you don't have to be formal. Food is a very important part of life, and is very good, so remember
to compliment them (35)____ their cuisine.

Question 31: A. on time B. punctually C. punctual D. in time
Question 32: A. inefficient B. efficiency C. efficiently D. inefficiently
Question 33: A. another one B. each other C. yourselves D. themselves

Question 34: A. do B. speak C. be D. talk

Question 35: A. on B. at C. for D. with

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

A massage is relaxing, and makes you feel great, but did you know that it's also good for you?
That's what doctors are now saying. Massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeds up
recovery from medical problems.

Research has shown that people of all ages benefit from touch. Premature infants who are held
develop faster than those left alone, and healthy babies who get a lot of physical contact cry less and sleep
better. Researchers are not sure why this occurs but they have also found out that touch can slow heart
rate, lower blood pressure and increase levels of serotonin, the brain chemical that is linked to well-being. It
also decreases levels of the stress hormone cortisol, and this in turn increases your resistance to illness.

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Giving someone a massage may be as good as getting one. A study conducted by the University of
Miami found that mothers suffering from depression felt better after massaging their infants. In that same
study, elderly volunteers who massaged infants reported feeling less anxious and depressed.

It even works when you do it yourself; 43% of headache sufferers reported getting relief after
massaging their temples and neck and smokers who were taught self-massage while trying to quit felt less
anxiety and smoked less.

Question 36: What has recently been said about getting a massage?
A. It relaxes you.

B. It makes you feel good.

C. It improves your physical condition.
D. It requires a special technique.

Question 37: Babies born before their time ...
A. cry less and sleep better if they are massaged.
B. grow faster if they are held.

C. develop faster than healthy babies if they get a lot of physical contact.
D. don't survive if they are not held.

Question 38: The author suggests that touch ....
A. increases levels of the stress hormone cortisol.
B. makes your heart beat faster.

C. increases the feeling of well-being.
D. helps you deal with your feelings.
Question 39: Patients who get massages ....

A. don't experience muscle pain.
B. avoid having surgery.

C. make a quicker recovery.

D. are not better off than those who do not.
Question 40: According to the article....

A. massage has no effect on smokers.
B. massage relieves headaches by 43%.

C. smokers who gave others massages felt less anxious and smoked less.
D. massaging yourself is as effective as being massaged.

Question 41: What did the study conducted in Miami show?
A. Elderly volunteers who got massages felt less anxious.
B. Mothers were depressed after massaging their babies.
C. Babies who got massages felt better.

D. Giving a massage is as beneficial as getting one.
Question 42: What is NOT true according to the article?

A. Mothers will suffer from depression if they don't massage their babies.
B. People can learn to massage themselves.

C. Massage is good for you regardless of whether you're giving or getting one.
D. It helps smokers quit smoking.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

If we took a look at how people in Europe communicated just one hundred years ago, we would be
very surprised to find out that English was hardly used outside the United Kingdom. The language most
commonly used between people of different nationalities, and particularly the aristocracy, was French. In
fact, French was the language of diplomacy, culture and education. However, that is not the case
nowadays. English has replaced French as the international language of communication. Today there are
more people who speak English as a second language than people who speak it as a first language.

There are many reasons why English has become the language of international communication.
Britain's colonization of many parts of the world had something to do with it, but it is mainly due to America's
rise to the position of major world power. This helped spread popular American culture throughout the world
bringing the language with it.

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Chinese, which is the most widely-spoken native language in the world, takes over as the world's
international language instead of English.

Question 43: According to the passage, a century ago....
A. educated people throughout Europe spoke English.
B. foreign travelers to England spoke only French.
C. French was much more popular than English.
D. only the French aristocracy could speak English.

Question 44: What is chiefly responsible for the growth in popularity of English?
A. Britain's becoming an international power.

B. The French losing many colonies.
C. America's becoming powerful.

D. The development of American culture.

Question 45: What is meant by "the language of diplomacy" (lines 4)?
A. The language used by ordinary people.

B. The language used by the English and the French.
C. The language used by the aristocracy.

D. The language used by governments.

Question 46: What is true according to the passage?
A. The experts don't like Esperanto.

B. Esperanto is difficult to learn.
C. Esperanto is not a natural language

D. Esperanto is becoming more and more popular.

Question 47: The experts' opinion on the spread of English is ...
A. split

B. positive
C. negative
D. undecided

Question 48: The author believes that...
A. English is easier to learn than Chinese.

B. English will probably be replaced as an international language.

C. Chinese is going to be the next language of international communication.
D. Chinese is growing in popularity among non-native speakers.

Question 49: These days...

A. French is the language of diplomacy.

B. more non-natives speak English than natives.

C. more people speak French than English.
D. French is a dying language.

Question 50: What would be a good title for this passage?
A. English; Past, Present and Future

B. English as an international Language
C. English language means English culture
D. English: a difficult language to learn

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ĐỀ SỐ 8

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced 
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. danger B. landscape C. hand D. nature
Question 2: A. explosion B. exploration C. expertise D. expedition

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the 
main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. acquaintance B. unselfish C. attractionD. humorous
Question 4: A. managerial B. determination C. unbelievable D. inability

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 5: If you _____ less last night, you _____ so bad today.

A. had drunk – would not have felt

B. drank – would not feel

C. had drunk – would not feel

D. would have drunk – would not feel

Question 6: Son, along with his friends, ______ on a picnic in Cuc Phuong National Park at the end of this month.
A. have to go B. will goC. are going D. is going

Question 7: “_____ TV for the last four hours? Turn it off and get some exercise.”

A. Did you watch B. Are you watch

C.Did you watch D. Have you been watching

Question 8: In the past six month, the company has already received twice ____ in gross revenues as it earned in
the entire preceding year.

A. as much B. moreC. as many D. as more

Question 9: Information on events occurring in the theater ____ the year is available through our website.

A. into B. throughout C. on D. as

Question 10: _____ for the money management seminar will be forwarded to all the managers tomorrow.

A. Invite B. Invitations C. Inviting D. Invitation

Question 11: The conference‟s keynote speaker addressed ____ impacts of digital technology on the current music
industry.

A. variety B. variablyC. variation D. various

Question 12: Due to subway system repairs, service on this line has been ___ until next Tuesday.
A. reserved B. suspended C. collectedD. distributed

Question 13: Former footballer Tito Grimaldi is ____ a commentator and analyst for the Night Football Recap.
A. currently B. carefully C. purposely D. personally

Question 14: Please ___ and see us some time. You‟re always welcome.

A. come around B. come about C. come to D. come away
Question 15: “_____ for you, I‟d never have had the courage to enter the talent show.”

A. Except B. ButC. Had it not D. Apart

Question 16: I have seen that famous actor on television, but I have never seen him ____ person.

A. by B. on C. of D. in

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 17: My mother is a live wire who is always as busy as a bee.
A. a person who is lively and full of energy

B. a person who is good at repairing electric devices
C. a person who works leisurely all the time

D. a person who is busy working with wiring

Question 18: After considering it, I decided I had been wrong.

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C.For this time only D. For the second time

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 19: The expansion of public services has caused concern that the civil service branches are becoming
autonomous powers.

A. independent B. advanced C. superiorD. powerful

Question 20: All organisms must obtain nutrients from the environment in order to sustain themselves.

A. isolate B. harvestC. acquire D. digest

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the 
following questions.

Question 21: California has more land under irrigation than any another states.
A B C D

Question 22: In the 1920‟s cinema became an important art form and one of the ten
A B C

largest industry in the United States.
D

Question 23: Ripe fruit is often stored in a place where contains much carbon dioxide

A B C

so that the fruit will not decay too rapidly.
D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or 
phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 24 to 28.

Beatrix Potter was a story writer whose books about animals have been translated into many languages and read
by both children and adults. (24) ___ being an author, she was also regarded as a very successful farmer. Born in
London in 1866, Beatrix was cared for at home by various servants. Every year she counted the days to her annual
holiday in the countryside. She would (25)____ to her London home small animals which she observed and drew.
As she grew up, she entertained other children with drawings and stories about these animals. In 1901, she printed
a book at her own (26) ____called “The Tale of Peter Rabbit”. So many copies were sold that she bought a farm,
where over the next eight years she wrote many other stories. They are sold very well and readers liked their
detailed color drawings.

With her growing, (27) ____, Beatrix started buying more farmland, animals and property. After her marriage, at
the age of 47, Beatrix stopped writing, saying that she had run out of (28)____. She became a farmer and spent the
rest of her life working with her sheep and awarding prizes at sheep fairs.

Question 24: A. Apart B. Besides C. Otherwise D. Except

Question 25: A. get B. keep C. take D. give

Question 26: A. earning B. spending C. expenseD. charge

Question 27: A. pay B. income C. wages D. receipt

Question 28: A. views B. ideas C. opinionsD. beliefs

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to 
each of the question from 29 to 35

Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today. Thousands of these
How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that begin with the words “How-to”.
One book may tell you how to earn money. Another may tell you how to save or spend it and another may explain
how to give your money away.

Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to succeed in it. If you
fail, however, you can buy the book “How to Turn Failure into Success”. If you would like to become very rich, you
can buy the book “How to Make a Millionaire”. If you never make any money at all, you may need a book called
“How to Live on Nothing”.

One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want to have a better
love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”. If you are tired of books on
happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step in instructions on how to redecorate or enlarge a house.
Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today people have
far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to books helps people deal with
modern life.

Question 29: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How-to books

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30
C. How to turn failure into success

D. How to succeed in love every minute
Question 30: How-to books are the ones that _________

A. give instructions on how to do things

B. offer you entertainment after a hard-working day
C. develop your imagination or creativity

D. preserve traditions and customs

Question 31: There are How-to books that give you advice about money except ____
A. how to earn more money B. how to invest money in business
C.how to save or spend money D. how to give money away

Question 32: How-to books that give advice on careers do not deal with ____
A. succeeding in job interviews B. choosing a career

C.success in your careers D. turning failure into success
Question 33: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______

A. advice B. How-to books
C.career D. instruction

Question 34: Which of the following is NOT the type of books giving information on careers?
A. “How to Turn Failure into Success”

B. “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”
C. “How to Make a Millionaire”

D. “How to Live on Nothing”

Question 35: The reasons why How-to books have become popular are all the following except ____
A. life has become so complex

B. B. people have far more free time to use
C. people tend to read more books

D. people have more problems to solve

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to 
each of the question from 36 to 43

BLUE MOON

“Blue moon” is a term that is used to describe the phenomenon of a second full moon occurring in one month. How
could two full moons possibly occur in a single month? It is not nature‟s fault; the natural phases of the moon do not
perfectly match up with the Roman calendar.

Although still used today, this calendar was devised by Julius Caesar and Augustus Caesar over 2000 years ago.
While the calendar works well, the method that they used does not match the lunar cycle exactly. Thus, occasionally
the moon will go through its “full” phase twice before the month changes.

A “blue moon” is an uncommon event. And its rare occurrence eventually led to the usage of the phrase “once in a
blue moon”. This phrase was commonly used to indicate an event that could never happen. Over time, the meaning
of the phrase changed from something that would never happen, to something that seldom happens. Today, this
phrase is used to indicate extremely rate events, the absurd, or things that never happen.

Question 36: What is the main purpose of this passage?

A. To explain the definition and the usage of “blue moon”

B. To inform readers of the difference between the Roman calendar and the lunar calendar.
C. To support the importance of the lunar calendar

D. To illustrate the features of the moon

Question 37: According to the passage, what does the term “blue moon” refer to?
A. A moon with the colour blue

B. Cold nights causing the moon appear blue
C. The second full moon in one month
D. Events that could never happen

Question 38: The word “phase” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to ____
A. Shape B. position C. cycle D. influence
Question 39: Why doesn‟t our calendar match the lunar cycle exactly?

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31
C. Our calendar was not designed by humans

D. Our calendar was designed by humans

Question 40: Why did people use the expression “blue moon” to mean something that would never happen?
A. Because the moon will never turn blue

B. Because we use the Roman calendar

C. Because it is rare two full moons to be in one month
D. Because the lunar cycle does not match our calendar
Question 41: the word “absurd” in paragraph 3 is closets in meaning to ____

A. Normal B. ridiculous C. interesting D. frequent
Question 42: According to the passage, which is the following is NOT true?

A. The meaning of the phrase “blue moon” changed over the year

B. The phrase “once in a blue moon” could refer to two people eating dinner together
C. The roman calendar was invented by Julius and Augustus Caesar

D. The roman calendar is still in use today

Question 43: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The phrase “blue moon” refers to frequency of the events
B. The usage of “blue moon” has not changed

C. The roman calendar matches the natural phases of the moon
D. Two full moons often occur in one month.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.

Question 44. - Julie: “You look stunning in that dress, Anna. How beautiful you are!”
- Anna: “ ________”

A. It‟s nice of you to say so. B. Thank you.

C. Don‟t mention it. D. You‟re very kind.
Question 45. - Foreigner: “__________”

- Hoa: “ Go straight. It‟s on the corner of Holly and Rose. Next to the library.”
A. Can you take me to the 3D Museum?

B. I know it‟s rude but where‟s the 3D Museum.

C. Could you show me the way to the 3D Museum?
D. Can I get to the 3D Museum by car?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Although engineers must make use of technology and innovations, these alone are not enough to pass
engineering information.

A. Technology and innovation is essential for engineers; however, there is still more in
order to transmit engineering information.

B. Engineering professionals advise to benefit from technology and advances so that they
can pass on their engineering information.

C. Whatever technology or information engineers use, transformation of the engineering
information they possess can never be passed through.

D. Almost all engineers have been interested in technology and advances in their fields, but
they are generally bad at expressing their engineering information.

Question 47. Unlike a high school education, a university education includes the application of knowledge.
A. While in high schools students have the chance to apply their knowledge, in universities

they don‟t.

B. High school students lack the opportunity to apply their knowledge that university
students have.

C. High school education and university education are similar in that both include the
application of knowledge.

D. A university education is more useful than a high school education since it allows the
students to apply knowledge.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions

Question 49. The team leader allowed members to make important decisions. He fostered their spirit of
commitment.

A. Allowing members to make important decisions, the team leader fostered their spirit of
commitment.

B. On the behalf of the team, the leader made important decisions to foster their spirit of
commitment.

C. Although the team leader wanted to foster the spirit of commitment among members, he
made important decisions on his own.

D. All member could make important decisions, so that the spirit of commitment would be
discouraged.

Question 50. Winston Churchill was a great politician and statesman. He also won the Nobel Prize for literature.
A. Winston Churchill won the Nobel Prize for literature so he was great politician and

statesman.

B. Winston Churchill, a great politician and statesman, also won the Nobel Prize for literature.
C. Winston Churchill was a great politician rather than a statesman although he won the
Nobel Prize for literature.

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ĐỀ SỐ 9

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. forget B. chore C. perform D. supportive

Question 2:A. facial B. economic C. ocean D. beneficial

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. diversity B. biography C. curriculum D. intervention

Question 4: A. discuss B. attempt C. reserve D. secret

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.

Question 5: A number of large insurance companieshas their headquarters in the capital city.
A B C D

Question 6: He can‟t hardly remember the accident because he was only a four-year-old boy when it
A B C D

occurred.

Question 7: My uncle is inNhaTrangon vacation, but I wish he is here so that he could help me repair
A B C D

my bicycle.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: Look! The yard is wet. It ……… last night.

A. had to rain B. ought to rain C. must have rained D. should have rained
Question 9: The more you study during the semester, …………. the week before exams.

A. the less you have to study B. you have to study the less
C. the least you have to study D. the study less you have

Question 10: My mother ……….. strawberries for years but she has never had such a good crop before.

A. is growing B. has been growing C. grew D. had grown

Question 11: A giant meteor crashing into the Earth is believed ………. the extinction of dinosaur.
A. to have caused B. to cause C. having caused D. causing
Question 12: ……… he followed my advice, he would not be unemployed now.

A. Were B. Had C. Should D. Unless

Question 13: In England schooling is compulsory _______ all children from the age of 5 to 16.
. A. with B. over C. to D. for
Question 14: The equator is an …………. line that divides the earth into two.

A. imaginary B. imaginative C. imagination D. imaginable

Question 15: Many restaurants do not ………. their customers to bring pets into the premises.

A. require B. discourage C. permit D. insist

Question 16: Tom had to ……. three forms and pay a fine before they allowed him to take his car back.

A. give out B. turn up C. fill out D. put in

Question 17: The principal has ………… an urgent meeting with the teachers.

A. called for B. picked out C. turned on D. made up

Question 18: While on a tour, tourists are only given a ………… time at each place of attraction.

A. confined B. limited C. particular D. certain

Question 19: The chairman didn‟t make any ………… upon the matter.

A. opinion B. comment C. investment D. evaluation

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.

Question 20: - Interviewer: “………..”
- Interviewee: “Thank you”

A. Sit yourself, OK? B. Be seated, please. C. Seat down, will you? D. Please take a
sit.

Question 21: - “Thanks for inviting me to dinner.”

- “………”

A. Don‟t worry about it.

B. You‟re welcome. Come in and make yourself at home.
C. There‟s no need to say that.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: His precise explanation of the report pleased the board of directors.

A. timely B. exact C. prompt D. ready

Question 23: Bullying can hurt people in many different ways, emotionally and physically. Therefore, all the students
in my class keep away from the bully.

A. notice B. defend C. annoy D. avoid

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Cholera is rare in less developed countries due to poor water and sanitation conditions. It is estimated
that 11 million cholera cases occur every year among children under 5 years of age.

A. common B. ordinary C. general D. normal

Question 25: We waited for our grandmother at the departure hall of the airport for 5 hours as her flight was delayed.

A. release B. appearance C. arrival D. transfer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.

Question 26: As soon as I arrived home, someone knocked at the door.
A. I had to arrive home as someone knocked at the door.

B. Had someone knocked at the door, I would have arrived home.
C. No sooner had I arrived home than someone knocked at the door.
D. I hardly knew someone knocked at the door as I just arrived home.
Question 27: Mr. Kha remembered to take everything except his front door key.

A. The only thing which Mr. Kha forgot was his front door key.

B. Mr. Kha remembered to take everything including his front door key.
C. The only thing that Mr. Kha remembered was his front door key.
D. Except his front door key, Mr. Kha forgot everything.

Question 28: For a cold, doctors often recommend that you rest and drink lots of fluids.
A. The doctors recommend that you have cold soft drinks.

B. Doctors would rather give advice about cold than about fluids.
C. Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds.
D. You were told to come in out of the cold and rest.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it.

A. The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea.
B. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea, the manager refused it.
C. The manager didn‟t like to proposal because it didn‟t seem a good idea.
D. The proposal didn‟t seem like a good idea, so the manager didn‟t accept it.

Question 30: Winston Churchill was a great politician and statesman. He also won the Nobel Prize for
literature.

A. Winston Churchill won the Nobel Prize for literature so he was a great politician and statesman.
B. Winston Churchill, a great politician and statesman, also won the Nobel Prize for literature.

C. Winston Churchill was a great politician rather than a statesman although he won the Nobel Prize
for literature.

D. Winning the Nobel Prize for literature, Winston Churchill became a great politician and statesman.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The Internet is a great place to look up information. The same information may be found in libraries, but the
Internet makes the information (31) …………. 24 hours a day. Furthermore, information on the Internet may be more
up-to-date, and some would never be found in a library. The Internet is not a replacement for libraries,
(32)………….. it is an extremely valuable supplement.

When you are (33) ……… to the Internet, you are ready to start searching. The basic step for finding what
you are looking for in a fast and easy way is: Find a search engine. A search engine is a useful (34)…………. for
looking up information on the Internet. Basically, it is an Internet site that will do the searching on the Internet for
you. There are many different search engines and web sites for you to use. They are divided up (35) ………
several different categories for your convenience. This will allow you to select a site that will be better for searching

different topics.

Question 31: A. capable B. available C. manageable D. observable

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Question 33: A. facilitated B. connected C. attached D. purchased

Question 34: A. room B. machine C. tool D. pilot

Question 35: A. into B. for C. between D. with

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Alligators and crocodiles are both native to America, and they both belong to the group of animals called
crocodilians. They also look similar, and many people might even think they are the same animal. There are several
differences that can be used to tell them apart.

American alligators are much more common than American crocodiles. Because they hate the cold, alligators
live in the southeastern part of the country usually in freshwater lakes and swamps. Their skin is dark with bright
stripes and spots of yellow. They eat almost anything they can catch, including fish, birds, and occasionally people!
Until 1970, it was legal to hunt them, but too many were killed for their skins. Now there are strict controls on
hunting, and alligators are again numerous in many areas. There are also strict controls on the hunting of deer and
other animals.

American crocodiles are a bit different. They are even more sensitive to cold, so they live only in the tropical
climate of southern Florida. Most crocodiles prefer the saltwater of coastal areas. They are very shy, so people do
not often see them in the wild. Their skin is grayish-green or brown, and their heads are longer and more
triangle-shaped than that of an alligator. They eat only fish and other water animals. Crocodiles are listed as an endangered

species, so they are also protected by US law.

Question 36: What would be the best title for this passage?
A. Alligators and Crocodiles: American Brothers
B. Crocodilians: Similarities and Differences
C. The Animals of the Swamp

D. Hunting Crocodiles: Terror in the Swamp
Question 37: What don‟t alligators eat?

A. water animals B. fish C. garbage D. people

Question 38: The word “them”in the passage refers to ………

A. alligators B. people C. birds D. crocodiles

Question 39: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Alligators and crocodiles look exactly the same.
B. Alligators and crocodiles both prefer warm places.
C. Alligators and crocodiles both often hurt people.
D. Alligators and crocodiles are both protected.

Question 40: Which of the following sentences should NOT belong in the passage?

A. They look similar, and so many people might even think they are the same animal.
B. Their skin is dark, with bright stripes and spots of yellow.

C. There are also strict controls on the hunting of deer and other animals.
D. They eat only fish and other water animals.

Question 41: Which of the following words best describes how the passage is written?
A. chronographic B. storytelling C. comparative D. argumentative
Question 42: The passage is most likely taken from ……….

A. an encyclopedia B. an article C. an advertisement D. an autobiography

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswer to
each of the questions from 43 to 50.

One question that is being debated these days is whether or not genetic engineering is a good thing. We hear
this term “genetic engineering” with increasing frequency these days. For those readers who may not be sure of its
meaning, some definitions follow. When we speak of genes, we are referring to chemical substances in the cells of
all-living things that establish an organism‟s characteristics. Genetic engineering is the changing of certain genes,
usually to improve an organism in some way. In recent years, for example, certain genes have been placed in
tomato plants to make tomatoes taste better and keep them fresh in supermarket for a longer time. Cows have been
treated with a growth hormone that makes dairy cattle give more milk and reduces the amount of fat in the meat of
beef cattle. These sound like positive things, don‟t they? After all, many people say, the technology exists to improve
our lives.

But there are plenty of people around who oppose genetic engineering. Why? Two specific objections come
to mind. One is that the balance of nature might be upset. Suppose, for example, that scientists are able to
genetically engineer certain plants so that insects will not eat them. This will protect the plants, but the insects will be
deprived of a food supply- and other animals that depend on those insects for food will lose their food supply, too. A
second objection is a moral question. Is it acceptable or right for us to change the makeup of living things?

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more fruits and vegetables and resist disease. In a word where more and more food will be needed in the future, this
is a benefit. The medical advances provided by genetic engineering, say the supporters, are even more impressive.
Consider cancer, for example. If genetic engineering can provide a way to cure or prevent this disease, shouldn‟t it
be used? And if genetic engineering can be used to kill the virus that causes AIDS, shouldn‟t it be permitted?

Opponents of genetic engineering say it should be stopped, or at least limited. Proponents of genetic
engineering say it should be promoted and expanded. The debate goes on.

Question 43: What is TRUE about genetic engineering, according to paragraph 1?
A. It increases people‟s age. B. It improves fat in the meat.

C. It changes gene‟s parameters. D. It reduces the number of cells.
Question 44: Genetic engineering is said to be aimed at ………

A. changing genes of plants and animals
B. placing new genes into plants

C. establishing an organism‟s characteristics
D. improving an organism in some way

Question 45: The word “One” in the passage refers to ………..

A. specific objection B. mind C. balance of nature D. example
Question 46: It is stated in paragraph 2 that ………

A. scientists control the number of insects
B. ecosystems should be counter balanced
C. insects protect the plants from extinction
D. people should be concerned about wild animals

Question 47: The word “outweigh”in the passage is closest in meaning to ………….
A. have the same value B. be of greater importance

C. weigh heavier than D. be less expensive

Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the supporters of genetic engineering?
A. It has more advantages than weak points.

B. It will help to achieve record harvests.

C. It can be controlled and stopped any moment.
D. It will mean breakthrough in medicine.

Question 49: All of the following is mentioned in the passage EXCEPT ………….
A. genetic engineering will save plants and insects from extinction
B. certain genes can make some vegetables more delicious
C. genetic engineering could help sick people

D. it‟s harmful to interfere in animal life

Question 50: Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage?
A. Can genetic engineering be harmful to environment?

B. People can manage genetic engineering.
C. Genetic engineering: Super foods

D. Genetic engineering: Forward or Backward?

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ĐỀ SỐ 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in 
pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. dishes B. judges C. matches D. phones

Question 2. A. chose B. lose C. close D. pose

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary 
stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. define B. idea C. express D. figure

Question 4. A. realize B. recognize C. consider D. stimulate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 5. Global warming is a problem that ______ for a long time.

A. has existed B. is existing C. can exist D. exists

Question 6. What should be taken into consideration before ______ a decision?

A. make B. to make C. making D. made

Question 7. It was ______ nice weather that we want to go on a picnic.

A. such B. too C. very D. enough

Question 8. It ______ John you see last night. Hehas been on his business trip for a week now.

A. needn‟t have rained B. mustn‟t have rained C. shouldn‟t have been D. can‟t have been

Question 9. There aresome amusement parksin town ______ children can go and play.

A. which B. where C. that D. when

Question 10. John would have gonehome if Sara _____ in time.

A. shouldn‟t come B. hasn‟t come C.hadn‟t come D. wouldn‟t come

Question 11. Profoundeconomic changeshave______ due to the new financial policy.

A. pick up B. turn up C. bring about D. come about

Question 12. I‟m delighted about my ______ as leader.

A. select B. selection C. selective D. selecting

Question 13. The contest which had been arranged weeks before was ______ at the last minute.

A. taken over B. called off C. pulled down D. set about

Question 14. It is necessary that students ______ wearuniform.

A. can B. should C. ought D. may

Question 15. Julia is said to be a responsible housewife who helps her husband ______ the household.

A. work B. run C. do D. make

Question 16. The car was so small that it could only ______ two people.

A. include B. have C. contain D. hold

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 17. Chris is a university student. He comes to visit his professor, Mr. Brown, during office hours.
Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.

Chris: “Excuse me. I don‟t want to interrupt you but…”
Mr. Brown: “______”

A. What can I do for you? B. Certainly, how dare you!

C. I quite agree. D. I have no idea.

Question 18. Wendy and Mark are university students. They are both living on campus. Select the most
suitable response to fill in the blank.

Wendy: “How often did you write home?”
Mark: “______”

A. I didn‟t come home yesterday. B. I used to write home once a week.

C. My hometown is a coastal province. D. Oh, I miss my hometown so much.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of 
the following questions.

Question 19. He was admitted to hospital in critical condition, but is now off the danger list.

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38
Question 20. The Ministry of Education and Training worked in close collaboration with teachers on the new

curriculum.

A. together with B. online with C. separately from D. in the place of

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of 
the following questions.

Question 21. The ring wasn‟t worth very much but it had great sentimental value.

A. worthy B. priceless C. precious D. valueless

Question 22. This puzzle is a piece of cake. I can do it with my eyes closed.

A. very difficult B. really fascinating

C. rather boring D. quite understandable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following 
questions.

Question 23. Some people disapprove of keep animals in zoos asthey think it is cruel.
A B C D

Question 24. In 1985, Campbell has setoff from New York and walked across the United States.
A B C D

Question 25. Kangaroos use its long and powerful tails to balance themselves when sitting upright or jumping.
A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best 
fits each of the numbered blanks.

Classrooms have changed considerably in the last hundred years. In the early 1900s, the (26) ______
class in England was twice as big as the average in the 1960s – sixty pupils per class compared with thirty.
Nowadays, the average class size in a secondary school is twenty-three, (27) ______ is still higher than in
many other countries. A hundred years (28) ______, teachers were stricter than today. Punishment was also
more severe: pupils were often hit for bad behaviour - a practice not allowed in schools today. The curriculum
in the past was also (29) ______ extensive and concentrated on Reading, Writing and Arithmetic – whereas
today‟s curriculum includes everything from business studies to philosophy. Some people think that the
teaching methods used in schools today are not as (30) ______ as those used in the past but, given the wide
range of interactive tools available today, the 21st century is definitely the most interesting time to be in the
classroom for teachers and pupils alike.

Question 26. A. normal B. ordinary C. average D. common

Question 27. A. which B. that C. what D. who

Question 28. A. then B. ago C. early D. back

Question 29. A. more B. less C. fewer D. most

Question 30. A. efficient B. productive C. effective D. profitable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
questions.

Almost everybody has had acne. Acne, also known as pimples or zits, is a normal part of growing up.
When kids reach puberty, their bodies experience many changes. As the levels of hormones in teenagers'
bodies change, teenagers frequently develop pimples. Additionally, many people continue to have pimples

after puberty. What can a teenager or an adult do to cure pimples? Unfortunately, many cures people think will
work on pimples are really just myths.

Many people believe that popping pimples is the best way to get rid of them. Popping a pimple will
actually push the germs further under the skin, which can cause more redness and pain, or even turn into an
infection. For that reason, dermatologists normally encourage people not to pop their pimples.

Also, do you think that washing your face frequently will help get rid of pimples? Of course, washing your
face is a good idea, but washing your face too much could irritate the skin more, making the pimples even
worse.

Another widely believed myth is that not wearing makeup can help reduce a person's chance of
developing pimples. In fact, some kinds of makeup or face creams actually have special medicine in them to
fight pimples. As a result, not all of them are bad for you.

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Another myth is that stress can cause acne. Stress comes in many forms, like a big exam at school or
problems with friends. Whilst it is true that stress can cause a person's skin to create extra oil, this extra oil
does not necessarily cause more pimples.

Question 31. What is the main idea of this reading?

A. In the past, people thought pimples showed a serious disease.
B. People do many things to cure pimples which don't actually work.
C. Pimples are not a problem for most people.

D. Teenagers are not the only people with pimples.
Question 32. According to the reading, who can get pimples?

A. Teenagers and babies B. Adults

C. Babies D. Teenagers and adults

Question 33. The word “dermatologists” refers to doctors specializing in ______.

A. skin B. puberty C. infection D. germs

Question 34. Why is it not a good idea to pop pimples to get rid of them?
A. It is not as good as washing one‟s face.

B. It may lead to skin irritation or even infection.
C. It is of no use when people reach puberty.
D. It will increase the level of hormones.

Question 35. Which of the following is true about wearing makeup?
A. Some right kinds of products may help fight pimples.
B. Makeup cream will increase the amount of oil on skin.
C. Not wearing makeup helps prevent pimples.

D. Wearing cream is not as good as taking medicine.
Question 36. The word “myths” is closest in meaning to ______.

A. untruths B. legends C. rumours D. tales

Question 37. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about stress?

A. It can come in many forms. B. It increases the level of oil on skin.

C. It does not directly cause pimples. D. It makes school exams more difficult.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
questions.

ROLE MODELS

When one hears the expression “role models”, one‟s mind naturally jumps to celebrities, especially as far
as young people are concerned. Therefore, it would be more than natural to assume that teenagers, heavily
influenced by the media, are dazzled by well-known Hollywood stars, famous musicians and internationally
renowned athletes. However, nothing could be further from the truth.

In reality, according to a recent survey, over 75% of teens who filled out an online questionnaire claimed
that the role model for whom they had the greatest respect was not a famous personality, but a family member.
It seems that the qualities that make a good role model are more complex than researchers first assumed. For
example, Nancy L, a teenage girl from Wisconsin, described her role model as a woman who had a clear
sense of what was important to her, making the effort to create things that would make a real difference in the
world. The woman she was referring to was her favourite aunt, who was a painter and sculptor.

Role models come into young people‟s lives in various ways. They are family members, educators, peers
and ordinary people encountered in their daily lives. Students emphasised that being a role model is not
confined to those with international fame or unbelievable wealth. Instead, they said the greatest attribute of a
role model is the ability to inspire others. Teachers were often mentioned as examples in this case, ones that
are dedicated to encouraging students, helping them push their limits and strengthen their characters.

Another quality high on the list was the ability to overcome obstacles. In addition to parents, peers often
made up a large percentage of such role models. Young people are at a point in their lives when they are
developing the skills of initiative and capability, so it is only natural that they admire people who show them that
success in the face of difficulty is possible.

A final and perhaps unexpected character trait that the youth of today admire is a clear set of values.
Children admire people whose actions are consistent with their beliefs; in other words, who practise what they

preach. Role models help them to understand the significance of honesty, motivation and the desire to do
general good. For example, local politicians who clearly struggle to improve living conditions in their cities are
high on their lists of role models.

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think. This makes it crucial for adults to be aware of their influence on the young and set the best examples
possible.

Question 38. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “dazzled”?

A. impressed B. disappointed C. confused D. frightened

Question 39. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be assumed as teens‟ role model?

A. A handsome actor B. A famous sportsperson

C. A hot popstar D. A brilliant scientist

Question 40. What does the passage tell us about Nancy L‟s role model?

A. She was not related to Nancy. B. She was famous for her talent.

C. She was a mysterious person. D. She had strong priorities.

Question 41. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “confined to”?

A. assisted by B. restricted to C. similar to D. influenced by

Question 42. According to the passage, what quality makes teachers good role models?

A. their ambition to succeed B. their wide knowledge

C. their ability as academic educators D. their positive effect on students

Question 43. The ability to overcome obstacles is important to young people because ______.

A. teens must have it to teach their peers B. it is not something that one can easily find

C. obstacles make life more difficult D. it is relevant to the stage of life they are in

Question 44. According to paragraph 5, children really look up to those who ______.

A. are as active as possible B. do what they say they will do

C. pay attention to the needs of the young D. are religious in their life
Question 45. The passage suggests that adults should ______.

A. try to avoid imposing their influence on younger people
B. realise that they have a strong effect on young people
C. be careful of the role models their children may have
D. encourage children to reject celebrities as role models

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following 
questions.

Question 46. John is so exhausted that he won't be able to go out tonight. 
A. Although John is exhausted, he will be able to go out tonight.
B. John is too exhausted to go out tonight.

C. Because John won‟t be able to go out tonight, he is exhausted.

D. John won‟t be able to go out tonight unless he is so exhausted.

Question 47. Although the new teacher is inexperienced, he is really enthusiastic. 
A. The new teacher does not have enough experience to be enthusiastic.

B. The new teacher is really enthusiastic due to the fact that he is inexperienced.
C. Despite being an experienced teacher, he lacks enthusiasm.

D. No matter how inexperienced the new teacher may be, he is really enthusiastic.
Question 48. Right after the police had arrived at the scene, the situation was settled.

A. The police did not arrive at the scene until the situation had been settled. 
B. If the police had arrived at the scene, the situation would have been settled.
C. The police had no sooner arrived at the scene than the situation was settled.
D. The situation had been settled just before the police arrived at the scene.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of 
sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The traffic was terrible. We arrived at the concert late.

A. The terrible traffic prevented us from arriving at the concert on time.
B. Because of the terrible traffic, we got to the concert in the nick of time.
C. The concert began late because the traffic was terrible.

D. If the traffic had not been terrible, we would have gone to the concert.
Question 50.I don’t have enough money. I can’t buy that house.

A. I don‟t have enough money because I cannot buy that house.
B. Although I have sufficient amount of money, I can‟t buy that house.

C. If I had enough money, I could afford that house.

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