LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

A. CÁC ĐỀ THAM KHẢO

Đềsố1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1: A. material
B. crucial
C. partial
D.
financial
Question 2: A. reign
B. leisure
C. neighbor
D.
vein
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. equality
B. available
C. manufacture
D.
biography
Question 4: A. penalty
B. attendance
C. opponent
D.
adventure

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Digital clocks, however precise, (A) they cannot be (B) perfectly accurate
because (C) the earth’s rotation changes (D) slightly over years.
Question 6: At the Hermitage, Andrew Jackson’s home in Tennessee, even his glasses
(A) have been left (B ) exactly where he (C) lay (D) them.
Question 7: The officials of the Board of Elections asked that each voter (A) present (B)
their registration card and a valid Texas (C)driver’s license before (D) receiving a ballot.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: As consumers’ response to traditional advertising techniques declines,
businesses are beginning ____ new methods of reaching customers.
A. to develop
B. develop
C. it developing
D. the development
that
Question 9: We were going to go by bus but in the end we ____ because Simon gave us
a lift.
A. needn’t
B. didn’t need to
C. needn’t have
D. needed not to
Question 10: He was already worried lest she ____ someone what had happened.
A. would tell
B. told
C. might have told
D. had been telling
Question 11: ____ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and
listen.

A. What the woman was
B. That the woman was
C. The woman was
D. What was the woman
Question 12: To plant rice, farmers, ____, set young plants in the mud.
A. whose bare feet wading in the water
B. water wading in their feet


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

C. wading in the water in their bare feet
D. they wade with bare feet in the water
Question 13: Not until ____ home ____ that he had taken someone else's bike.
A. did he get/he realized
B. did he get/did he realize
C. he got/did he realize
D. he got/he realized
Question 14: When the U.S. and England proclaimed war against Iraq, the anti-war
protesters all around the world ____ practically all the roads to the famous squares.
A. set up
B. took over
C. turned over
D.
blocked off
Question 15: It was too late to ____ of the contract.
A. back up
B. back down
C. back out
D.

back away
Question 16: After hours of bargaining with the salesman, Jake bought the jacket for
a_____ of the original price.
A. fraction
B. piece
C. part
D.
spot
Question 17: Amelia Earhart ____history in 1928 when she became the first woman to
fly across the Atlantic.
A. fixed
B. made
C. prepared
D. did
Question 18: The Avicenna Partnership is a ______ company with a long and
successful sales history.
A. respectable
B. respectful
C. respecting
D.
respective
Question 19: _____, they slept soundly.
A. Hot though was the night air
B. Hot though the night air was
C. Hot the night air as was
D. Hot although the nigh air was
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - “Have you seen the price of petrol these days?” - “____”
A. I’m amazing, aren’t I?

B. Yes, I did.
C. It’s amazing, isn’t it?
D. What a lot of petrol?
Question 21: - "I’m so sorry for keeping you waiting for 2 hours. My car broke down on
the way."
- "____."
A. It’s alright
B. You are welcome
C. Thank you
D. It's my pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Living in the central Australian desert has its problems, of which
obtaining water is a serious one.
A. getting
B. storing
C. purifying
D.
controlling
Question 23: The Industrial Revolution marked the beginning of an epoch of exodus
from rural areas to cities.
A. migration
B. period
C. episode
D.
story


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay
B. paid in full
C. had a bad personality
D. was paid
much money
Question 25: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited
B. irregular
C. secret
D. legal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Considering that we travelled right across the country, the bus ticket was
surprisingly reasonable.
A. Because we were able to move right through the country, the price of the bus ticket
didn't bother us.
B. The ticket for the bus, which took us from one side of the country to the other, was
the cheapest that we could find.
C. The most reasonable way to go right across the country was by bus, so we bought
ourselves a ticket.
D. As the bus brought us right across the country, we found the price of the ticket to be
cheaper than its value to us.
Question 27: When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him
because I could hear the noise of a party in the background.
A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the
background and I told him that when he telephoned.

B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was
saying properly because of my unbelievably noisy party.
C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't
believe his claim that he was studying.
D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the
background there were party-like sounds.
Question 28: I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Beef contains vitamins. Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins
as beef.
A. The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish.
B. The vitamin content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef.
C. Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content.
D. What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef.
Question 30: He was very powerful. Nervertheless, he failed to do anything to save his
son’s life.
A. He failed to do anything to save his son’s life in spite of the fact that he had no
power.
B. In order to save his son’s life, he had great power to do anything he could.


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

C. Powerful as he might be, he couldn’t do anything to save his son’s life
D.The failure in saving his son’s life was due to his being very powerful.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from
31 to 35.
(31) ____ history, women have always aimed for a recognized place in society. Guided
by their own (32) ____ of knowledge and expertise, women like Marie Curie in science,
Mary Wollstonecraft in literary writing, Simone de Beauvois in philosophical
existentialist debate, and Marie Stopes in medicine, to name a few, have brought about
an awareness of the role of the women in any walks of life. These women have helped
redefine and (33)____ the nature of women’s place in society. Today the (34)____ of
global women’s organizations and the impact of women’s contributions (35)____
society show that progress has been made and the progress in furthering the role of
women in society has been some benefit to the individual woman. It is true to say that
not all women have the same need.
Question 31: A. Among
B. Throughout
C. During
D.
Upon
Question 32: A. region
B. farm
C. field
D.
path
Question 33: A. gain
B. encourage
C. force
D.
consolidate
Question 34: A. right
B. belief

C. limit
D.
spread
Question 35: A. on
B. for
C. to
D. at
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Music can bring us to tears or to our feet, drive us into battle or lull us to sleep. Music is
indeed remarkable in its power over all humankind, and perhaps for that every reason,
no human culture on earth has ever lived without it. From discoveries made in France
and Slovenia even Neanderthal man, as long as 53,000 years ago, had developed
surprisingly sophisticated, sweet-sounding flutes carved from animal bones. It is
perhaps then, no accident that music should strike such a chord with the limbic system –
an ancient part of our brain, evolutionarily speaking, and one that we share with much of
the animal kingdom. Some researchers even propose that music came into this world
long before the human race ever did. For example, the fact that whale and human music
have so much in common even though our evolutionary paths have not interested for
nearly 60 million years suggests that music may predate humans. They assert that rather
than being the inventors of music, we are latecomers to the musical scene.
Humpback whale composers employ many of the same tricks that human
songwriters do. In addition to using similar rhythms, humpbacks keep musical phrases to
a few seconds, creating themes out of several phrases before singing the next one. Whale
songs in general are no longer than symphony movements, perhaps because they have a
similar attention span. Even though they can sing over a range of seven octaves, the
whales typically sing in key, spreading adjacent notes no farther apart than a scale. They
mix percussive and pure tones in pretty much the same ratios as human composers – and
follow their ABA form, in which a theme is presented, elaborated on and then revisited
in a slightly modified form. Perhaps most amazing, humpback whale songs include

repeating refrains that rhyme. It has been suggested that whales might use rhymes for


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

exactly the same reasons that we do: as devices to help them remember. Whale songs
can also be rather catchy. When a few humpbacks from the Indian Ocean strayed into
the Pacific, some of the whales they met there quickly changed their tunes – singing the
new whales’ songs within three short years. Some scientists are even tempted to
speculate that a universal music awaits discovery.
Question 36: Why did the author write the passage?
A. To describe the music for some animals, including humans
B. To illustrate the importance of music to whales
C. To show that music is not a human or even modern invention
D. To suggest that music is independent of life forms that use it
Question 37: The word “sophisticated” is closest in meaning to:
A. compound
B. attractive
C. well-developed
D.
beautiful
Question 38: The word “one” can be replaced by:
A. the chord
B. the left brain
C. the right brain
D. the
limbic system
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following is true of humpback
whales?
A. Their tunes are distinctively different from human tunes.

B. They can sing over a range of seven octaves.
C. They do not use rhyme, unlike humans.
D. Whale songs of a particular group cannot be learned by other whales.
Question 40: The word “They” refers to:
A. human composers
B. whole songs
C. octaves
D.
whales
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true about humpback whale music?
A. It uses similar patterns to human songs.
B. It’s comparative in length to symphony movements.
C. It’s easy to learn by other whales.
D. It’s in a form of creating a theme, elaborating and revisiting in rhyming refrains.
Question 42: The word “catchy” is closest in meaning to:
A. easy to catch
B. easy to remember
C. easy to read
D.
easy to think
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has
made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made
many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all
human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as
well., especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to
contract certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government
researchers realized that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meat)

as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain
in our food, and it 6 becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on
the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle
and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but
for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to
obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of
detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do
not realize the consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge.
Question 43: How has science done a disservice to people?
A: The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
B: It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C: As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been
added to our food
D: Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually
eradicated.
Question 44: The word “prone” is nearest in meaning to ______.
A: healthy
B: predisposed
C: supine
D: unlikely
Question 45: What are nitrates used for?
A: They preserve the colour of meat.

B: They preserve flavor in packaged foods.
C: They are the objects of research.
D: They cause the animals to become fatter.
Question 46: FDA means ______.
A: Federal Dairy Additives
B: Final Difficult Analysis
C: Food Direct Additives
D: Food and Drug Administration
Question 47: The word “these” refers to ______.
A: nitrates and nitrites
B: researchers
C: meats
D: colors
Question 48: The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to ______.
A: cancer-causing
B: trouble-making
C: money-making
D:
color
retaining
Question 49: All of the following statements are TRUE except ______.
A: Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than
forty-five years
B: Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons
C: Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to
the living animals
D: Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world
Question 50: The word “additives” is closest in meaning to ______.
A: benign substances
B: added substances

C: natural substances
D: dangerous substances

Đềsố2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

Question 1: A. reformed
installed
Question 2: A. banana
camera

B. appointed

C. stayed

D.

B. classmate

C. pagoda

D.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following

questions.
Question 3: A. mountaineer
B. philosopher
C. responsible
D.
productive
Question 4: A. arrival
B. fortune
C. impatient
D.
enjoyable
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: It was in 1971 that transatlantic supersonic transportation became
commercially availability.
A. in
B: supersonic
C. became
D: availability
Question 6: My brother attends an university in the Midwest which specializes in
astrology.
A: specializes
B: attends
C: an university
D: in astrology
Question 7: This new nice flat looks perfect for a young couple.
A: a
B: looks
C: perfect
D: new nice

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: ______ that some areas may never recover.
A. Such devastating were the floods
B. So were devastating the floods
C. It were such devastating the floods
D. So devastating were the floods
Question 9: We are talking about the writer______ latest book is one of the best-sellers
this year
A. who
B. whom
C. which
D. whose
Question 10: Governments should __________ international laws against terrorism.
A. bring about
B. bring in
C. bring up
D. bring back
Question 11: “Don’t forget to take______ your shoes when you are in Japanese house.”
A. off
B. apart
C. in
D. up
Question 12: Joe, remember that I’m __________ you to see that there’s no trouble at
the party on Sunday.
A. relying on
B. waiting for
C. believing in
D. depending on
Question 13: She had just enough time to __________ the report before the meeting.

A. get through
B. turn round
C. dip into
D. go into
Question 14: My grandmother takes______ for keeping the house.
A. probability
B. ability
C. possibility
D. responsibility
Question 15: Last year she earned______ her brother.
A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as many as D. twice as more as
Question 16: ______ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar
system.


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

A. The Earth being B. The Earth is
C. That the Earth is D. Being the Earth
Question 17: No matter______. Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a
child.
A. how it seem remarkable
B. how remarkable it seems
C. it seem remarkable how
D. how seem it remarkable
Question 18: He left the country __________ arrest if he returned.
A: with threat of
B: in fear of
C: with fear of
D: under threat of

Question 19: The former Olympic______ was invited to speak at a charity dinner.
A. champion
B. victory
C. trophy
D. triumph
Mark the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - “Excuse me. I’m your new neighbor. I just moved in.” “__________.”
A. Oh, I don’t think so
B. Where to, sir?
C. Sorry, I don’t know
D. I’m afraid not
Question 21: Annie: “have a nice weekend” – Riat:”______”
A. You have
B. You will
C. You too
D. You are too.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Thomas A. Edition was a celebrated American inventor in the 19th
century.
A: an ingenious
B: an eminent
C: a successful
D: a creative
Question 23: In many parts of the world, talismans are used to ward off evil.
A: seek out
B: transcend
C: keep away
D: describe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: On November 25, 1872, something dreadful happened on board of
the brigantine Mary Celeste, causing all crew members to hastily abandon the ship.
A: stay on
B: take care of
C: hold on
D: save for
Question 25: The motorist felt that the ticket for infraction was unwarranted.
A: conscientious
B: justified
C: inadvertent
D: inevitable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: “Gettting a good job doesn’t matter much to me”.
A. I am only interseted in getting a good job
B. It’s interesting for me to get a good job
C. I am not good at getting a good job
D. I don’t care about a good job
Question 27: It doesn’t cost much to run a solar power system.
A. A solar power system is quite cheap to set up
B. Running a solar power system costs nothing
C. A solar power system costs so much to run
D. Running a solar power system is not costly


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488


Question 28: We missed the turning because we forget to take the map with us
A. Without the right map with us, we missed the turning
B. If we taking the map with us, we did not miss the turning
C. Without the map with us, we missed the turning
D. Having remembered the map with us, we would not miss the turning.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn‘t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‘t pass it
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily
Question 30. We didn‘t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn‘t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from
31 to 35.
Once upon a time, people left school or university, joined a company and stayed with it
until they retired. The concept of a job for life is now long (31) ______, and nowadays
many employees find it hard to stay loyal to their companies for even a relatively short
period of time. According to a recent survey, this is particularly (32) _______ in
London, where more than half of those asked said that they constantly keep one eye on
other job opportunities, (33) _______ they are fairly happy in their existing jobs. A high
number of London workers say that they are always on the (34) _______, although they
are content and motivated in their current position. Job seekers find that the internet (45)
_______ them with a quick and easy way to find out what’s available, and 53 per cent
said that they had applied for a job or register with an employment agency in the past 12

months.
Question 31: A: done
B: finished
C: gone
D:
over
Question 32: A: right
B: actual
C: real
D:
true
Question 33: A: as well
B: even if
C: so that
D:
just as
Question 34: A: pursuit
B: lookout
C: watch
D:
search
Question 35: A: delivers
B: provides
C: fulfils
D:
serves
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Fleas are perfectly designed by nature to feast on anything containing blood. Like a
shark in the water or a wolf in the woods, fleas are ideally equipped to do what they do,

making them very difficult to defeat. The bodies of these tiny parasites are extremely
hardy and well-suited for their joB. A flea has a very hard exoskeleton, which means the
body is covered by a tough, tile-like plate called a sclerite. Because of these plates, fleas


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

are almost impossible to squish. The exoskeletons of fleas are also waterproof and
shock resistant, and therefore fleas are highly resistant to the sprays and
chemicals used to kill them. Little spines are attached to this plate. The spines lie flat
against the flea’s thin, narrow body as the flea scurries through an animal’s fur in search
of food. However, if anything (like fingers or a self- grooming pet) tries to pull a flea off
through the hair coat, these spines will extend and stick to the fur like Velcro. Fleas are
some of the best jumpers in the natural world. A flea can jump seven inches, or 150
times its own length, either vertically or horizontally. An equivalent jump for a
person would be 555 feet, the height of the Washington Monument. Fleas can
jump 30,000 times in a row without stopping, and they are able to accelerate
through the air at an incredibly high rate—a rate which is over ten times what
humans can withstand in an airplane. Fleas have very long rear legs with huge thigh
muscles and multiple joints. When they get ready to jump, they fold their long legs up
and crouch like a runner on a starting block. Several of their joints contain a protein
called resilin, which helps catapult fleas into the air as they jump, similar to the way a
rubber band provides momentum to a slingshot. Outward facing claws on the bottom of
their legs grip anything they touch when they land. The adult female flea mates after her
first blood meal and begins producing eggs in just 1 to 2 days. One flea can lay up to 50
eggs in one day and over 2,000 in her lifetime. Flea eggs can be seen with the naked eye,
but they are about the size of a grain of salt. Shortly after being laid, the eggs begin to
transform into cocoons. In the cocoon state, fleas are fully developed adults, and will
hatch immediately if conditions are favorable. Fleas can detect warmth, movement, and
carbon dioxide in exhaled breath, and these three factors stimulate them to emerge as

new adults. If the flea does not detect appropriate conditions, it can remain dormant in
the cocoon state for extended periods. Under ideal conditions, the entire life cycle may
only take 3 weeks, so in no time at all, pets and homes can become infested. Because of
these characteristics, fleas are intimidating opponents. The best way to control fleas,
therefore, is to take steps to prevent an infestation from ever occurring.
Question 36: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as
A: concerned
B: informative
C: opinionated
D: passionate
Question 37: According to the passage, fleas are resistant to sprays and chemicals
because they
A: are excellent jumpers
B: can stick to fur like Velcro
C: have waterproof sclerites
D: reproduce very rapidly
Question 38: Fleas are difficult to squish because they have
A: resilin in their joints
B: sclerites
C: tough spines
D: All of the above
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?
A: The resilin found in fleas is used to make rubber bands.
B: Humans can jump higher if they consume foods containing resilin.
C: Fleas have the ability to jump higher than humans.
D: Fleas extend their little spines if threatened.
Question 40: According to the passage, fleas are able to jump
A: with a high rate of acceleration and up and down and from side to side
B: up and down and from side to side and because the blood they eat contains resilin
C: because the blood they eat contains resilin

D: with a high rate of acceleration
Question 41: Based on information in the passage, the reader can understand that
A: fleas will die without access to blood


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

B: fleas will die after they produce 2,000 eggs
C: fleas survive at a higher rate in outdoor habitats
D: newly hatched fleas are the size of a grain of salt
Question 42: The author mentions the Washington Monument in order to
A: illustrate a comparison made between fleas and humans
B: estimate the extreme distance that a flea is able to jump
C: demonstrate the superiority of fleas over humans
D: clarify a point made regarding fleas and acceleration
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts:
it bare mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild
coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from
development. When Britain people think of the countryside they think of farmland, as
well as open spaces. They imagined cows or sheep in green field enclosed by hedges or
stone walls and field of wheat and barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is
crossed by a network of public footpaths.
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend
their free time walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch.
In summer people go to fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few
people who live in the country work on farms. Many commute to work in towns.
Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe they would have a better
and healthier lifestyle.

The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming
practices, and the use of chemical harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for
new houses. The green belt, an area of land around many cities, is under increasing
pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly opposed by organizations trying to
protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least delay the building
work.
America has many areas of swild and beautiful scenery, and there are many
areas, especially in the West in States like Montana and Wyoming, where few
people living. In the New England states, such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it
is common to see small farm surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indianan,
Illinoisan and other Midwestern states, field of corns or wheat reach to the horizon and
there are many miles between towns. Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities
and towns. Life may be difficult for people who live in the country. Services like
hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can mean driving
long distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the main road where
their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantaged, many people who live in the
country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often
move to a town or city as soon as they can.
Question 43: We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain ______
A. none of the areas face the sea
B. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
C. only a few farms are publicly owned
D. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another.
Question 44: The word “enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______
A. rotated
B. blocked
C. surrounded
D. embraced



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Question 45: Which is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside of
Britain?
A. Riding a bicycle B. Going swimming C. Picking fruit
D. Going for
a walk
Question 46: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to______?
A. Those who dream of living in the country
B. Those who go to fruit farm in summer
C. Those who go to country for a picnic
D. Those who commute to work in towns.
Question 47: Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
A. The green belt around cities
B. Protest against building work.
C. Modern farming practices
D. Plants and wildlife
Question 48: The phrase “associated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning
to______
A. supported by
B. separated from
C. related to
D. referred to
Question 49: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT______
A. The green belt is under pressure because of the need for land.
B. The use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside.
C. Camps are set up by protesters to stop the constructions of work.
D. All organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction.
Question 50: The phrase “reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning
to______

A. are limited
B. are endless
C. are varied
D. are
horizontal

Đềsố3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1: A. linked
B. declared
C. finished
D.
developed
Question 2: A. heavy
B. head
C. weather
D.
easy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. attract
B. decide
C. reject
D.
beauty
Question 4: A. delicate
B. promotion

C. volcanic
D.
resources
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The man whom I wanted to meet him was away on business.


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

A
B
C
D
Question 6: Passengers shouldn’t be thrown away their tickets as they may be checked
during the journey.
A
B
C
D
Question 7: No one came to see us since we bought these bloodhounds.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: On _______ he had won, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told
B. having told

C. being told
D. telling
Question 9: It has been raining ______ I got up.
A. when
B. since
C. until
D. as
Question 10: Learning English isn't so difficult once you_______.
A. get on it
B. get off it
C. get down to it
D. get down
with it
Question 11: Next week when there ______ a full moon, the ocean tide will be higher.
A. is
B. will be
C. is being
D. will have
been
Question 12: ____ is the natural environment in which plants or animals live.
A. Ecology
B. Habitat
C. Extinction
D.
Biodiversity
Question 13: I have told you not to do it_______.
A. hundreds of times
B. many hundred times C. hundred times
D. a hundred
times

Question 14: George wouldn't have met Mary_______ to his brother's graduation party.
A. had he not gone
B. hadn't he gone
C. if he has not gone D. if he
shouldn't have gone
Question 15: Venice, ______ was built on water, is a city in Italy.
A. where
B. that
C. who
D. which
Question 16: It is recommended that he ___________ this course.
A. took
B. take
C. takes
D. taking
Question 17: We bought some _______.
A. German lovely old glasses
B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses
D. old lovely German glasses
Question 18: If you had taken my advice, you _______ in such difficulties now.
A. wouldn't have been
B. hadn't been
C. wouldn't be
D. won't be
Question 19: One's fingerprints are _______ other person.
A. different from
B. different from any
C. differ from any
D. different from those of any

Mark the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”.
A. Great
B. Oh, that's annoying
C. Well, never mind
D. Sounds like fun
Question 21: “Let’s have supper now” - “__________”
A. You aren’t eating
B. No, I don’t think so
C. There aren’t any
D. Bill isn’t here


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The augmentation in the population has created a fuel shortage.
A. increase
B. necessity
C. demand
D. decrease
Question 23: When their rent increased from $200 to $400 a month, they protested
against such a tremendous increase.
A. light
B. huge
C. tiring
D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase

that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the
country.
A. soak
B. permanent
C. complicated
D. guess
Question 25: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. unplanned
B. deliberate
C. accidental
D. unintentional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Had he known more about the internet, he would have invested in some
computer companies.
A. Knowing about the internet help him invest in some companies
B. He didn’t know much about the internet and didn’t invest in any computer
companies
C. Knowing about the internet, he would have invested in some computer
companies
D. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of
the internet
Question 27: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
B. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen.
Question 28: Tom regrets to say that he has left the tickets at home.

A. Tom regrets leaving the tickets at home.
B. Tom is sorry that he has left the tickets at home.
C. Tom wishes he hadn’t left the tickets at home.
D. Tom regrets to leave the tickets at home.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. He only needs three hours' sleep. That amazes everybody.
A. The thing that he amazes everybody is to need only a three hours' sleep.
B. The thing that he amazes everybody to be able to sleep in three hours.
C. The thing that he used to amaze everybody is to need only a sleep.
D. He amazed so as to have only a three hours' sleep.
Question 30: He smokes all the time. I can’t stand about him
A. I can't stand about him, so he smokes all the time.
B. What I can't stand about him is the way he smokes all the time.
C. What I can stand about him is the way he smokes all the time.


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

D. I can stand the way he smokes all the time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from
31 to 35.
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (31) _________in our cars and to heat
our building in winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil rich. They use them
to kill insects (32) _________eat plants. These chemicals go into rivers and lakes and
kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry
this (33) _________ air to other countries and other continents. Poor farmers use the
same land over and over. The land needs a rest so it will be better next year. However,
the farmers must have food this year. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land

(34) _________ desert. The people and the nations of the world must work together to
(35) ___________ the world’s resources.
Question 31: A. it
B. them
C. that
D. those
Question 32: A. what
B. who
C. whom
D. which
Question 33: A. pollute
B. polluting
C. polluted
D. pollution
Question 34: A. gets
B. changes
C. turns
D. becomes
Question 35: A. recycle
B. preserve
C. keep
D. reuse
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned
about the changes to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes
have occurred on our planet before. For example, there have been several ice ages or
glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that
they occurred gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being

monitored are said to be the result not of natural causes, but of human activity.
Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to
some experts, this warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate
unprecedented in the last 10,000 years. The implications for the planet are very serious.
Rising global temperatures could give rise to such ecological disasters as extremely high
increases in the incidence of flooding and of droughts. These in turn could have a
harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called
greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car
engines and modern industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the
pollution of the atmosphere, but also create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the
sun is trapped. This leads to the warming up of the planet.
Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular
summits on the subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of the world’s
industrialized countries. Of these summits, the most important took place in Kyoto in
Japan in 1997. There it was agreed that the most industrialized countries would try to
reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and were given targets for this reduction
of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks
to absorb greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has
been caused by too drastic deforestation.


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about
climate changes are often still being regarded as scaremongering.
Question 36: According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice
ages differ from the modern ones?

A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time
B. They were partly intended.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were fully monitored by humans.
Question 37: The word “alarmingly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A disapprovingly
B. disappointingly
C. surprisingly
D.
worryingly
Question 38: According to the passage, agriculture could ____.
A make the global warming more serious
B be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
C give rise to many ecological disasters
D be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
Question 39 Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they ____.
A. are emitted by car engines
B. trap heat from the sun
C. do not add to atmosphere pollution
D. are unusual gases
Question 40: According to the passage, 1997 witnessed ____.
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
C. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialized countries
D. widespread concern about climate change
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly
responsible for global warming are ____.
A. countries with the warmest climate
B. developing countries
C. developed countries

D. the most industrialized countries
Question 42: The word “There” in paragraph 5 refers to ____.
A. the world’s industrialized countries
B. regular summits on climate change
C. the most industrialized countries
D. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s
universities, came from very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years
after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth. Included in the puritan emigrants to the
Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100 graduates of England’s
prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the
New Word were determined that their sons would have the same educational
opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this support in the colony for an
institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400
pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel
of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later
renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day university.


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When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring
town of Charlestowne, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of
1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest
was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation
for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly
by today’s standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to

appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it
should be noted that in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty,
with an entering freshmen class of four students. Although the staff did expand
somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the
president and three or four tutors.
Question 43: The main idea of this passage is that_________.
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities.
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of
Massachusetts
Question 44: The passage indicates that Harvard is___________.
A. One of the oldest universities in the world
B. the oldest university in the world
C. one of the oldest universities in America
D. the oldest university in America
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the
Massachusetts colony were__________.
A. Rather well educated
B. rather rich
C. rather supportive of the English government
D. rather undemocratic
Question 46: The pronoun “they” in the second paragraph refers to_____.
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities
B. university graduates
C. sons
D. educational opportunities
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of

B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried
D. How much he bequeathed to
Harvard
Question 48: The word “fledgling” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by
which of the following?
A. Newborn
B. flying
C. winged
D.
established
Question 49: The passage implies that_______.
A. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B. Someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. The position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the
early years
Question 50: The word “somewhat” in the last paragraph could best be replaced
by_______.
A. Back and forth
B. to and from
C. side by side
D. more or
less


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Đềsố4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose

underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1: A: venues
B: backgrounds
C: biogas
D: games
Question 2: A: allegedly
B: confusedly
C: wickedly
D:
supposedly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A: psychological B: contributory
C: argumentative
D:
hypersensitive
Question 4: A: antipathy
B: antiquate
C: anticipate
D: antiquity
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: There are none young single people living in this town – only old people
and young families.
A: There are none
B: young single
C: only old people
D: living

Question 6: I would be happy to see him, but I didn’t have time because of the
coming examinations.
A: would be
B: because of
C: coming
D: to see
Question 7: Marie Curie, a famous Polish physician, won the Nobel Prize when she
discovered the radioactive metals radium and polonium.
A: won
B: when she discovered
C: metals
D:
Polish
physician
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: ______ about individuals who really existed and things that actually
happened.
A: Stories sometimes told are when folktales
B: Folktales sometimes tell stories
C: Folktales which sometimes tell stories
D: The stories of folktales
sometimes telling
Question 9: Labor unions and the company _______ in a confrontation over plans to
curb benefits.
A: carried away
B: caught up
C: faced off
D: showed up
Question 10: ______ the future, I think we’ll just have to wait and see.

A: As regards
B: Regardless of
C: Having regard to D: Without regard to
Question 11: The police are _______ certain who the culprit is.
A: in some ways
B: here and there
C: more or less
D: by and by
Question 12: The internship in a psychiatric ward _______ for the rest of his life.
A: had influence on him
B: had influence over him
C: had an influence at him
D: had an influence on him


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Question 13: Although the twins look identical, they have widely _______ opinions on
almost every topic under the sun.
A: distinct
B: divergent
C: dissimilar
D: distinguished
Question 14: We may win, we may lose – it’s just the luck of the _______.
A: draw
B: odd
C: fate
D: chance
Question 15: They are having serious problems. Their relationship is on the _______.
A: rocks

B: cliffs
C: stones
D: grass
Question 16: At first the children enjoyed the game but quite soon _______ novelty.
A: died out
B: wore off
C: went off
D: died down
Question 17: I _______. He should have _______ than to lend them money.
A: for one am not sorry / known better
B: am not sorry for once / been better
C: for one thing am not sorry / known more D: am not sorry once and for all / thought
more
Question 18: The scientists _______ the festival of Ramadan, but they were too busy
with their research in the laboratory.
A: would sooner have celebrated
B: would have loved to have observed
C: would have liked to commemorate
D: would prefer to have obeyed
Question 19: How annoying! You _______ again!
A: may yet make the same mistake
B: have yet to make the same mistake
C: have made the same mistake yet
D: have made the self-same mistake yet of
your
Mark the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: “Are you coming for a drink?” “_______ - I must get this finished
tonight.”
A: Thanks, but I mustn’t

B: Can I take a rain check?
C: As a matter of fact, I do
D: Well, that’s very surprising
Question 21: – “Are you thinking of flying business class?” –“_______”
A: No, economy.
B: No, I’m just on business
C: No, I’d like an aisle seat.
D: I’m flying there to attend a party.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Trudy felt ill at ease when she spoke in public for the first time.
A. felt uncomfortable and embarrassed
B. felt difficult and lost confidence
C. felt challenged and inopportune
D. felt nausea and dizzy
Question 23: The mission statement of the International Movement as formulated in the
"Strategy 2010" document of the Federation is to improve the lives of vulnerable people
by mobilizing the power of humanity.
A. weak and unprotected
B. poor and disabled
C. deaf and mute
D. wealthy and famous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: I find it hard to work at home because there are too many distractions.
A. attentions
B. unawareness
C. unconcern
D.

carelessness
Question 25: In the first two decades of its existence, the cinema developed rapidly.


LUYỆNTHITHPTQGCÙNGCÔVŨMAIPHƯƠNG–NGOAINGU24H.VN–0989924488

A. shortly

B. sluggishly

C. leisurely

D. weakly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: “Cigarette?” he asked. “No, thanks.” I said
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, so I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once
Question 27: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine.”
A. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. It is the doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.
D. the doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
Question 28: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” Said Ivan.
A. Ivan apologised to Gloria for borrowing her money.
B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.
C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money.

D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. What do I like best about France? The food!
A. The thing that I like best about France is the food.
B. The thing that I dislike best about France is the food.
C. I like France’s food.
D. France has the best food.
Question 30:. Janet didn’t marry Paul. She married Brian.
A. It wasn’t Paul that was married by Janet - it was Brian.
B. It wasn’t Janet that was married by Paul- it was Brian.
C. It wasn’t Paul that was married by Brian - it was Janet.
D. It was Paul that was married by Janet - it wasn’t Brian.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from
31 to 35.
Ask most people for their list of top ten fears, and you’ll be sure to find
(31).................... burgled is fairly high on the list. An informal survey I carried out
among friends at a party last week revealed that eight of them had had their homes (32)
....................into more than twice, and two had been burgled five times. To put the
record straight, (33) ....................of my friend owns valuable paintings or a sideboard
full of family silverware. Three of them are students, in fact. The most typical burglar, it
seems, involves the theft of easily transportable items- the television, the video, even
food from the freezer. This may have something to do with the (34) ....................that the
average burglar is in his (or her) late teens, and probably wouldn’t know what to do with
a Picasso, whereas selling a Walkman or a vacuum cleaner is a much easier matter. They


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are perhaps not so (35) ....................professional criminals, as hard-up young people who
need a few pounds and some excitement.
Question 31: A. been
Question 32: A. robbed
entered
Question 33: A. none
few
Question 34: A. information
knowledge
Question 35: A. many
rarely

B. having
B. broken

C. being
C. taken

D. out
D.

B. some

C. all

D.

B. fact

C. idea


D.

B. much

C. that

D.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In their darker moments, climatologists talk about their own “nightmare
scenario”. This is one where global warming has brought about such significant climatic
changes that ocean currents change direction. One scene from the nightmare has the
Gulf Stream moving south or even going into reverse, making winter in London look
and feel like a St. Petersburg January.
The ocean is a great moderating influence on the planet, soaking up heat around
the tropics and depositing it in the cooler polar regions. Yet scientists know surprisingly
little about how the sea does this - they estimate that the North Atlantic alone moves
energy equivalent to the output of several hundred million power stations. Last year
oceanographers began their biggest international research initiative to learn more about
ocean circulation. The first results from World Ocean Circulation Experiment
demonstrate just how complex the movement of sea water can be. They have also given
scientists a glimpse of the amount heat being exchanged between the oceans and the
atmosphere. As part of the experiment, researchers are monitoring the speed and
direction of ocean currents water temperature and salinity.
Research ships taking part will gather detailed measurements at 24,000 points or
“stations” along carefully designated trans-ocean routes. This undertaking dwarfs the
8,000 hydrographic stations created in the past hundred years of ocean surveying. A
fleet of ships, buoys, seabed sensors and satellites will collect so much data that Britain,

one of the 40 countries taking part, has opened a research institute, the James Rennell
Centre for Ocean Circulation in Southampton, to process them.
One of the justifications for the experiment, says John Woods, director of marine
and atmospheric sciences at the Natural Environment Research Council, is that the
oceans hold the key to understanding long-term changes in the global climate. The Earth
has two “envelopes” - the ocean, consisting of slowly circulating water, and the
atmosphere, made of fast-moving air. Far from being independent, they interact, one
modifying the other until a balance came about at the end of the last Ice Age, about
10,000 years ago. Scientists hope that knowing more about the ocean’s “weather
patterns” will help them to predict climate changes further ahead.
Knowing how heat is moved around the ocean is crucial to such long-term
forecasting. The top three meters of the ocean store more heat than all of the
atmosphere. Some of the heat can be transported downward between 30 meters and
several hundred meters. The deeper it goes, the longer it stays out of the atmosphere.
Water heated in the equatorial region flows in shallow currents north or south towards


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the poles, where it releases its heat to the air and, as it becomes colder and denser, sinks
to the sea floor, where it forms deep, cold currents that flow back to the equator.
(Source: “CAE Reading Skills” – Diana Pye and
Simon Greenall)
Question 36: The word “this” in the paragraph refers to ____.
A. desperate situation
B. climatologist’s speech
C. nightmare scenario
D. change of current direction
Question 37: Some scientists believe that global warming could ____.
A. modify ocean currents

B. change wind directions in the polar
regions
C. reduce the influence of the currents
D. increase wind speeds
Question 38: The phrase “into reserve” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
____.
A. into the same direction
B. backwards
C. parallel way
D. in front of
Question 39 The first results have already confirmed ____.
A. that the heat is stocked at the great depths
B. that the last Ice Age ended about 10,000 years ago
C. the complexity of ocean currents
D. that Gulf Stream currents are situated in the surface layer of water
Question 40: The word “initiative” in the second paragraph mostly means ____.
A. intention
B. new plan
C. opportunity
D.
big
experiment
Question 41: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to ____.
A. heated water
B. equatorial region C. current movement
D.
heat
transport
Question 42: Heat is transferred from the tropics to the poles ____.
A. in the surface currents

B. in the atmosphere
C. in the deep currents
D. along the seabed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Language has enabled our species to formulate ideas and exchange information. One
characteristic of language is that it is ever-evolving, changing to meet the needs of the
people speaking it. Countries tend to adopt a national language that makes it easy for
their inhabitants to communicate with one another as well as with outside entities. While
this encourages the spread of certain language, it can also lead to the death of others.
Consider the spread of Latin in ancient world as it pertains to English usage today.
Latin was the language spoken in the Roman Empire, which included the
Mediterranean and parts of Europe. Latin became so widespread that the languages of
many modern European countries are based on the Latin language. However, despite its
contribution to modern language, Latin in itself is no longer spoken as a primary
language. The eventual demise of Latin occurred because, as it spread out over hundreds
of years, it took on different dialects and pronunciations based on the different regions in
which it was used. Rather than adopting Latin as a language, foreign people took the
roots of Latin words and adapted them into their own languages. Hence, Latin’s
popularity is one of the reasons why it ultimately fell out of use. As Latin did centuries
ago, English is swiftly becoming the world’s most widely used language, spoken by
people on the majority of the seven continents and declared the national language in at


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least thirty-four countries. As with Latin, the accent and tone may differ from country to
country, but the basics of the vernacular have their foundation in Standard English.
Linguistics predict that, like Latin, English will experience a immense spread
and then subsequent break-up as the languages that got their start in English change into

languages unique unto them. They feel that this can already be seen in areas such as the
islands of Caribbean. While English is recognized as the national language of these
countries, it has quite a different sound than English spoken everywhere else in the
world. In other countries, English words have taken on completely different meanings
from what they were originally. In the African country of Uganda, for example, natives
use the word “extend” to mean “move over” or “get out of the way” rather than the more
universally understood meaning of “lengthen” or “stretch”. People in the South
American country of Guyana refer to “operation” when speaking of having an upset
stomach or diarrhea. We can clearly see that English, like Latin, is being adapted to
create other words or to take on new meanings.
(By Moraig Macgillivray and Patrick Yancey, Mastering skills for
TOEFL iBT)
Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How Latin became a dead language
B. The similarities and differences between Latin and English
C. The Latinization of English
D. The future of English
Question 44: The word “pertains” is closest in meaning to ____.
A. compares
B. connects
C. reflects
D. relates
Question 45: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ____.
A. Nations are more likely to choose a national language that is easy to their people to
use
B. National languages are chosen by people who wish to communicate with
neighbouring countries
C. A country’s inhabitants will speak whichever language is chosen by its leaders
D. Outside individuals are likely to choose a language similar to that of their neighbours.
Question 46: The word “vernacular” is closest in meaning to ____.

A. tone
B. verbal skills
C. accent
D. language
Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is true of the popularity
of Latin language?
A. It leads to the death of other contemporary languages.
B. It contributes to the formation and development of current dialects.
C. It gives birth to all of the Western languages.
D. It actually results in the disappearance of the language
Question 48: The word “diarrhea” in the third paragraph means mostly the same as
____.
A. bowel disorder
B. a respiratory disease
C. a cardiovascular problem
D. a terminal illness
Question 49: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ____.
A. English words
B. local words
C. different meanings
D. other countries
Question 50: The word “this” in the first paragraph refers to ____.
A. one characteristic
B. language
C. adopting a national language
D. communicating with each other


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Đềsố5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1: A. wine
B. cinema
C. diner
D. ninth
Question 2: A. cheap
B. child
C. chemist
D. chair
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. continue
B. contestant
C. example
D. sensible
Question 4: A. education
B. independence
C. entertainment
D.
impractical
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Not only were there methods and strict rules but he needs to practice them
as well.
A
B

C
D
Question 6: Ceramic can be harder, light, and more resistant to heat than metals.
A
B
C
D
Question 7: Professor Layton was equally fond of the two children, but he had to admit
that he found
A
B
the youngest an easier child to handle.
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: _____ pack can have as big an impact on your holiday as your destination.
A. How do you
B. However you
C. How did you
D. How you
Question 9: Although _____ satisfied with the contract, the officials hesitatingly agreed
to sign it.
A. complete
B. completed
C. completion
D. completely
Question 10: We regret _____ you that we cannot approve your suggestion.
A. informed
B. to inform

C. informing
D. inform
Question 11: When there are small children around, it is better to put breakable
ornaments out of _____.
A. reach
B. hand
C. place
D. hold
Question 12: Michael’s score on the test is the highest in the class; he _____ hard last
night.
A. should have studied
B. may have to study
C. must have studied
D. could have studied
Question 13: I’d like to _____ this old car for a new model but I can’t afford it.
A. exchange
B. convert
C. interchange
D. replace


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Question 14: I always get _____ in my stomach before visiting the dentist.
A. butterflies
B. crabs
C. worms
D. hedgehogs
Question 15: _____ other mammals, whales do not have a sense of smell.
A. Dislike

B. Unlikely
C. Not alike
D. Unlike
Question 16: What university will you take an _____ examination into?
A. entry
B. entrance
C. admission
D. attendance
Question 17: It’s only a small flat but it _____ my needs perfectly.
A. meets
B. fills
C. supplies
D. settles
Question 18: When Helen agreed to run the school play, she got more than she _____.
A. bargained for
B. faced up to
C. got round to
D. came down to
Question 19: _____ the can, my hand was cut.
A. As I was trying to open
B. Having tried to open
C. While trying to open
D. Trying to
Mark the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Cindy wanted to drive her best friend to have dinner at an Italian
restaurant but her car couldn't start. Therefore, she had to borrow one from Nancy.
Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Cindy: "Would you mind lending me your car?"
-Nancy: " _____."

A. Yes. Here it is
B. Yes, let's
C. Great
D. No, not at all
Question 21: “Jane didn’t look well today, did she? “ -“______”.
A. I am afraid not
B. No, she seemed ill
C. Yes, she seemed sick
D. A and B
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When the protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach towel, the
audience was dumb founded.
A. speechless
B. excited
C. content
D.
applauding
Question 23: The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river.
A. keeping
B. decreasing
C. increasing
D. releasing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: In remote communities, it’s important to replenish stocks before the
winter sets in.
A. remake
B. empty

C. refill
D. repeat
Question 25: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far
East.
A. expensive
B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to
operate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: “That’s a lovely new dress, Jean” said her mother.