30 ĐỀ ÔN THI
THPT QUỐC GIA
LẦN 1

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SỞ GD- ĐT HOA BINH

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2016
DE SO 21

Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
01. The criminal was sentenced to death because of ____ of his crime.
A. the severity
B. the complexity
C. a punishment
D. the importance
02. The discovery was a major ____ for research workers
A. breakthrough
B. breakdown
C. break-in
D. breakout
03. “Would you like me to get a taxi?”
- “____.”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks
B. Well, let’s see.

C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother
D. Yes, I see.
04. You have a good feeling about yourself and____ when you volunteer.
A. others
B. other
C. the other
D. the others
05. If it ____ their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. had been for
B. hadn’t been
C. hadn’t been for
D. wouldn’t have been
for
06. By the end of this month I____ for this company for two years.
A. have been working B. will have been working C. will be working
D. will work
07. Flooding in April is an unusual ____ in this area.
A. occur
B. occurrence
C. occurring
D. occurred
08. Lorie is very thin, ____ her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. dissimilar to
B. unlikely
C. unlike
D. dislike
09. It is a fact that____ form of energy.
A. electricity being the most useful
B. electricity the most useful
C. the most useful in electricity

D. electricity is the most useful
10. Please ____ and see us some time. You‘re always welcome.
A. come to
B. come about
C. come around
D. come away.
11. Only in the Civil War ____ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America
B. so many American soldiers were
C. many in America
D. were so many American soldiers
12. Prices of flats ____ from a few thousand to millions of dollars.
A. vary
B. change
C. differ
D. fluctuate
13. John____ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work.
A. approved
B. applied
C. appreciated
D. accomplished
14. As it was getting late, the boys decided to____ the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags.
A. put up
B. put off
C. put out
D. put on
15. The general public____ a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease.
A. must buy
B. must be buying
C. must have bought

D. must bought
16. I have to assure myself that I____ the best possible decision.
A. have leapt
B. have made
C. have done
D. have reached
17. “Sorry, I’m late, Mike.” - “____.”
A. Well, it’s worth a try
B. Not on my account C. No, I wouldn’t mind at all D. That’s all right
18. Once the air warms up, the snow should start to____.
A. thaw
(tan)
B. defrost
C. dissolve
D. liquefy (hoá lỏng)
19. It’s surprising that ex-smokers are less____ smokers than non-smokers.
A. tolerant of
B. tolerable to
C. intolerant
D. tolerance towards
20. Tony often watches TV after his parents____ to bed.
A. had gone
B. have gone
C. go
D. went
21. “What a great haircut, Lucy!”
- “____.”
A. You think so? I think it’s a bit too short
B. It’s my pleasure
C. Oh, yes. That’s right

D. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this.
22. Don’t leave paraffin heaters in a draught or where they’re____.
A. dangerously knocked over
B. in danger knocked over
C. in danger of being knocked over
D. in danger of knocking over
23. Mike: “Tell me what your dog’s like?” - Alice: “____.”
A. Very quickly
B. Biscuit and bones
C. Very well, thank you
D. Big, black and hairy
24. Population expansion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to meet____ food.
A. the requirement of B. the command of
C. the demand for
D. the necessity for
25. After years of being exposed to the sun and rain, the sign had become completely______.
A. unreadable
B. illegible
C. misread
D. readable
26. James: “What’s the matter?”
- Anne: “____.”
A. Nothing
B. Not at all
C. That’s all right
D. It’s no trouble
27. ____ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity can be transmitted
B. That electricity transmitting
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C. That electricity
D. That can be transmitted
28. ____ , sheep were then used for wool.
A. Having first domesticated for milk production B. Having been first domesticated for milk production
C. Because they had been first domesticated for milk production
D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production
29. Do you think Ms. Brown will ____ for Parliament in the next election?
A. sit
B. run
C. walk
D. stand
30. The judge ____ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. convicted
B. sentenced
C. prosecuted
D. accused
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality television is genre (loại) of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted
dramatic or humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional
actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” (tăng) documentary. Although the genre
has existed in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity
dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows
which resemble the frantic, often demeaning program produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern
example is Gaki no tsukai), to surveillance (giám sát)- or voyeurism (thói dâm đãng)- focused productions
such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer (sai thuật ngữ) and that such

shows frequently portray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic
(ngoại lai) location or abnormal (dị thường) situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by offscreen handlers (người đ/khiển), and with events on screen manipulated (thao tác) through editing and other
post-production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary
situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women
simultaneously (đồng thời), traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales (hiện trường). Reality
television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities (lễ kỉ niệm), outwardly in
talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants
also reach some degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for
several styles of program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and
Survivor, and other special-living- environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the
format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely
fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use
carefully designed scenarios (côt truyện), challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviors
and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment,
and avoids the word “reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality
TV. It really is unscripted drama.”
31. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ____.
A. they are agree with the statement
B. everyone agrees with the statement
C. no one agrees with the statement
D. they want to distance themselves from the statement
32. Reality television has ____.
A. always been this popular
B. been popular since before 2000
C. only been popular since 2000
D. been popular since approximately 2000
33. Japan ____.
A. is the only one place to produce demeaning TV shows

B. has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere
C. produced Big Brother
D. invented surveillance focused productions
34. People have criticized reality television because ____.
A. it is demeaning
B. it uses exotic locations
C. the name is inaccurate
D. it shows reality
35. Reality TV appeals to some because ____.
A. it shows eligible males dating women
B. it uses exotic locations
C. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances D. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities
36. Pop Idol ____ . A. turns all its participants into celebrities
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
C. is less likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
D. is a dating show
37. The term “reality television” is inaccurate____.
A. for all programs
B. just for Big Brother and Survivor
C. for talent and performance programs
D. for talent and performances programs
38. Producers choose the participants ____.
A. on the ground of talent
B. only for special-living- environment shows
C. to create conflict among other things
D. to make a fabricated world
39. Paul Burnett ____.
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A. was a-participant on Survivor
B. is a critic of reality TV
C. thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate D. writes the script for Survivor
40. Shows like Survivor ____.
A. are definitely reality TV B. are scripted
C. have good narratives
D. are theatre
Mark the letter to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest .
41. A. reindeer
B. engineer
C. pioneer
D. referee
42. A. dangerous
B. marvelous
C. conspicuous
D. numerous
43. A. establish
B. illustrate
C. intimidate
D. inheritance
44. A. expansion
B. conversion
C. precision
D. explosion
45. A. eradicate
B. character
C. malaria
D. spectacular
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer .
All life is sound. We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (46)_produced_ by nature and

everything in it. For thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and (47)_thanks to_ his
wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving sounds and noises, although they are but a small part of the
inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the universe. Children everywhere and without (48)_exception_ are
born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing. The difference lies (49)_merely_ in what they do
with these gifts. That (50)_varies_ according to temperament upbringing nationality, and time. Nature itself
is full of sound, full of music. Musical sounds existed millions of years before there was a human ear to
hear (51)_them_ the soft bubbling of the water, the roll of thunder, the whistling and rustling of leaves in
the wind and (52)_who_ knows how many other audible manifestations of nature. Man was born (53)_into_
a world of sound. Thunder filled him with fear and became a symbol of supernatural (54) powers__ . In the
roar of the wind he heard the voices of demons. Dwellers at the seashore (55)_judges_ the temper of the
gods by the sound of the waves. Religious rites and music were inseparable at the dawn of humanity.
46. A. found
B. heard
C. produced
D. existing
47. A. thanks to
B. based on
C. in spite of
D. without
48. A. exception
B. doubt
C. consideration
D. preparation
49. A. absolutely
B. merely
C. especially
D. suddenly
50. A. depends
B. forms
C. varies

D. differentiates
51. A. them
B. it
C. all
D. from
52. A. he
B. someone
C. who
D. everyone
53. A. with
B. from
C. in
D. into
54. A. disasters
B. powers
C. symbols
D. existence
55. A. terrified
B. touched
C. judged
D. heard
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
56. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in
Kuala Lumpur last week.
A
B
C
D
57. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A

B
C
D
58. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A
B
C
D
59. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now.
A
B
C
D
60. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that follow in case of an emergency.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning .
61. Tom has the ability to be a professional musician, but he’s too lazy to practice.
A. He is able to practice music lessons professionally though he is lazy.
B. As a professional musician he is not lazy to practice music lessons.
C. He is talented but he’ll never be a professional musician as he doesn’t practice.
D. Though practicing lazily, he is a professional musician.
62. The book costs $15,50 but I have only $14,50.
A. I have more than enough money to pay for the book. B. The book costs a little more than I have with
me.
C. I have just enough money to pay for the book. D. I need a few more dollars to pay for the book.
63. If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies.
A. I never go to the movies if I have work to do.

B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much
work.
C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies.
D. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies.
64. My father couldn’t stand Tom’s behavior.
A. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerant
B. My father was tolerant towards Tom’s behavior
C. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerable
D. Tom’s behavior was not tolerable
65. This question is even harder than the last one.
A. The last question is not difficult
B. This question is the most difficult one
C. The last question is difficult but this one is more difficult D. This question is hard but the last one is not.
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66. Nobody at all came to the meeting
A. There was almost nobody at the meeting
B. Not many people came to the meeting
C. Only a few people came to the meeting
D. Not a single person came to the meeting
67. Anne takes after her mother.
A. Anne resembles her mother in action
B. Anne looks alike her mother
C. Anne and her mother are alike
D. Anne likes her mother very much
68. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final.
A. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now
C. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg.

D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.
69. Cultures vary from country to country.
A. Cultures move from one country to another.
B. There are different cultures in one country
C. Culture differences are based on countries
D. Cultures are different in different countries.
70. They couldn’t climb up the mountain because of the storm.
A. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.
B. The storm discouraged them from climbing up the mountain.
C. Their climbing up the mountain was unable due to the storm.
D. The storm made it not capable of climbing up the mountain.
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c, or d on your answer
TALKING TO ELTON JOHN
Q - Do you miss doing the ordinary things in life?
A- I like plodding round the kitchen doing the things everybody else does. I love going to the supermarket
to do the shopping. I come back with far more stuff than I need. When I am on holiday in St. Tropez, I love
to get up at six in the morning to get the fresh bread. So people often see me wheeling my trolley round the
supermarkets in town.
Q - Do you mind being recognized?
A - I’ve tried going out in disguise, but in the end most people recognize me, Ninety- nine percent are very
pleasant, very polite. But it’s frustrating if you get out of bed on the wrong side- and you do some daysand someone asks you for an autograph and they haven’t got a pen or a piece of paper. But I enjoy my
popularity; I don’t see the point in being a recluse.
Q - You once said that you’re a bit of a loner.
A- Yeah, I always have been. By that I don’t mean that I’m alone. It’s just that I like to be my own boss all
the time. Don’t confuse that with being lonely because I’m not. I have lots of great friends around me.
Being successful has given me the confidence to do things I wouldn’t have had the courage to do otherwise.
But I still retain that shyness when I first meet people. I’m never going to get rid of that.
Q - You like your food, don’t you?
A- I’m one of those people who only has to look at a doughnut and I immediately put on 2 pounds without
even eating it. I’ve always had a problem with my weight .it doesn’t bother me too much, although I get

depressed when I’m very overweight. I dieted once and I became so obsessed that I neatly made myself ill.
But I’m happy with the way I am at the moment. If you exercise at least three or four times a week and play
tennis, then it’s no problem, but you have to keep at it. ( …)
Q - Do you think you will still be touring and making records in another ten year’s time?
A - I can’t keep touring and making records for the rest of my life- I’ve got to try something different now
and then. One thing I am interested in doing is writing a musical.
Q - So do you think we see you on stage in your town musical one day?
A - I doubt it. I’m not interested in going into a theatre and performing every night. You may find that
strange but if you’re on tour, you’re changing cities. I played at the Hammersmith Odeon once for 14 nights
and by the end of it I was going crazy. It was like going to the office. People who actually appear in plays
and musical for two or three years have my greatest sympathy and admiration. I never consider what I do as
work.
71. When Elton goes out, he ____.
A. is recognized by 99% of the population
B. wears a disguise
C. gets annoyed if he is recognized
D. accepts he will probably be recognized
72. The phrase ‘ a recluse’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. an ordinary person
B. a celebrity
C. a person who avoids other people
D. a person who gets frustrated with his popularity
73. How has frame changed Elton John?
A. He has become very bossy
B. He doesn’t like to be on his own
C. He feels more confident
D. He has become shy
74. The phrase ‘a loner’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. a person who likes being alone
B. a bossy person

C. a person who is unhappy without other people around D. an only child in the family
75. What does Elton John say about his weight?
A. He is obsessed with his weight
B. He gets depressed when he diets
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C. He has learnt to control his weight
D. He wishes he were thin
76. The word it in the last paragraph refers to ____.
A. his playing at the theatre for 14 nights
B. his going crazy after the performance
C. his going to the office
D. the Hammersmith Odeon
77. What does the last paragraph tell us about his attitude to work?
A. He loves doing the same thing day after day
B. He hates any sort of job which means following a routine and doing the same thing day after day.
C. He loves playing at the theatre
D. He admires people who work hard.
78. Which of the following is not true about Elton John?
A. He loves doing the shopping in supermarkets
B. He prefers going out in disguise to avoid people
C. He has a lot of friends
D. Although he’s always had a problem with his weight, he doesn’t care much about it.
79. All of the following suggest that Elton John is basically happy with himself and his lifestyle EXCEPT
____.
A. He enjoys his popularity
B. He is happy with the way he is at the moment
C. He never considers what he does as work
D. He’s always been a loner.

80. What is his future ambition?
A. to appear in a play or musical
B. to break with his present routine
C. to do a word tour
D. to play at the Hammersmith Odeon
134. I would prefer you to deliver the sofa on Friday.
⇒ I would rather .....................................................................................
135. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.
⇒ He regretted .......................................................................................
136. It is pointless to have that old typewriter repaired.
⇒ That old typewriter is not ...................................................................
137. The bridge was so low the bus couldn’t go under it.
⇒ It was .................................................................................................
138. I last saw him when I was a student.
⇒ I haven’t ..............................................................................................
139. That was a silly thing to say.
⇒ What ...................................................................................................
140. We’ve run out of tea.
⇒ There ..................................................................................................
141. Philippa asked Oliver if she could remember where she had put the camera.
⇒ Philippa said, “Oliver, .......................................................................
142. It is a six- hour drive from London to Edinburgh.
⇒ It takes ...............................................................................................
SỞ GD- ĐT HOA BINH

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2016
DE SO 22

Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) __ rely__ as

much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) _impression_ and tone
of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3) _reaction_ to something, and it may well be that we
unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being ( 4) __tactful__ lies in picking up
these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in
any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5) __reluctant__ to answer our question,
and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers
often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However
it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates
to the candidate’s character traits, and (6) __psychological__ stability. This raises the awkward question of
whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether
such tests actually produce (7) __reliable__ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test
would be an objectionable (8) __intrusion__ into their private lives.
After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his
or her family doctor to provide (9) _confidential_ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can
such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a (10) __conscientious__ employee or a values colleague?
Question 1:
A. rely
B. estimate
C. reckon
D. trust
Question 2:
A. looks
B. image
C. manner
D. expression
Question 3:
A. feeling
B. view
C. notion
D. reaction

Question 4:
A. good at
B. tactful khéo léo,
C. successful
D. humble
tế nhị
Question 5:
A. reluctant
B. used
C. hesitant
D. tending
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Question 6:
Question 7:
Question 8:
Question 9:
Question 10:

A. psychological
A. faithful
A. infringement

B. relevant
B. regular
B. invasion

C. physical
C. reliable

C. interference

D. similar
D. predictable
D. intrusion x
phạm
D. secretive
D. thorough

A. reticent
B. classified
C. confidential
A. conscientious lg
B. particular
C. laborious
tâm
Choose the answer that best fits the blank in each sentence or substitutes .
Question 11. The concert didn't come _______ our expectations.
A. up with
B. up against
C. up to
D. round
Question 12. Professor Alan insisted that every student _______ their report by Friday.
A. finish
B. finishes
C. finished
D. had finished
Question 13. - "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?" - " ___________" .
A. I'm afraid not
B. Yes, please

C. Never mind
D. Anything will do
Question 14. On September 9, 1950, California was admitted to the Union__________.
A. being thirty-first state
B. as the thirty-first state
C. for the thirty-first state
D. the thirty-first state
Question 15. James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ____.
A. sensible nhận thấy dc
B. insensible
C. sensitive dễ cảm động
D. senseless
Question 16. _______ that the company has shown rapid growth in the last two ears.
A. It is reported
B. They are reported C. The report was
D. It was reported
Question 17. Having been served lunch, _______.
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.
B. the committee members discussed the problem
C. it was discussed by the committee members
the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
Question 18. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “__________________”
A. Sorry, the seat is taken.
B. Yes, I am so glad
C. No, thanks.
D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
Question 19. - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - ".__________________."
A. Yes, certainly
B. Sorry. I have no idea

C. Not at all. Help yourself
D. You can say that again
Question 20. Doing exercises may _______ you to pass the exam.
A. make it easier for B. make easier for
C. be easy for
D. make easy that
Question 21. _________ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the contrary
B. On my part
C. On the whole
D. On the other hand
Question 22. In the early 16th century, the geography of the globe still _______________ a mystery.
A. maintained
B. continued
C. was
D. remained
Question 23. Although he hadn't spoken French for many years, he picked it _______ again after a few
weeks.
A. over
B. on
C. through
D. up
Question 24. If you need any support, you can rely on me to___________
A. set you down
B. face up to you
C. back you up
D. put you through
Question 25. The police carried out a _______ search for the missing diplomat.
A. through
B. thorough

C. throughout
D. thoughtful
Question 26. The house stands high in the top of the hill, so it can be _______ from very far.
A. aimed at
B. picked up
C. visible
D. deal with
Question 27. More people speak English than any other language, but non-native speakers now ______
native speakers by three to one.
A. outnumber
B. overtake
C. pass
D. dominate
Question 28. The government should take _______ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. steps
B. measures
C. changes
D. solutions
Question 29. The chairman requested that _______.
A. the members study the problem carefully B. with more carefulness the problem could be studied
C. the problem was more carefully studied D. the members studied more carefully the problem
Question 30. Designers are experimenting with a new material _______ flexibility and lightness.
A. is combining
B. has combined
C. that combines
D. combination of
Question 31. Hair color is ___________ characteristics to use in identifying people.
A. one of the most obvious that are
B. obviously one of the most
C. one of the most obvious

D. most obvious one of
Question 32. The notice should be put in the most conspicuous place so that all the students can be wellinformed. A. easily seen
B. beautiful
C. popular
D. suspicious
Question 33. - "What do you think of football?" - "___________"
A. Of course, football players are excellent B. It's none of my business.
C. Well, it's beyond my expectation
D. I am crazy about it.
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Question 34. His change of job has ____________ him with a new challenge in life.
A. led
B. initiated
C. presented
D. introduced
Question 35. As coal mines became deeper, the problems of draining water, bringing in fresh air, and
_________ to the surface increased.
A. ore is transporting B. to transport ore
C. how ore is transported D. transporting ore
Question 36. As it was her first offence, she was let off with a ___________ .
A. fine
B. sentence
C. caution
D. conviction
Question 37. ______tobacco was sold in 1983 as in 1982,
A. Not as many
B. Not as much
C. Not much

D. Not many
Question 38. Winning a lottery is a rare occurrence. ___________ very small.
A. A number of winners are
B. The number of winners is
C. A number of winners is
D. The number of winners are
Question 39. I prefer to talk to people face to face rather than to talk on the phone.
A. facing them
B. in person
C. looking at them
D. seeing them
Question 40. ____________ seemed a miracle to us.
A. His recover after so soon
B. That he recovered so soon
C. His being recovered so soon
D. When he had recovered so soon
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions
Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a hindrance
(cản trở), and may even cause harm. These studies have disclosed (vạch trần) that the judgments of
interviewers differ markedly (rõ ràng) and bear little or no relationship to the adequacy (sự đầy đủ) of the
job applicants. Of the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular stand out.
The first reason is related to an error of judgment known as the halo (vinh quang) effect. If a person
has one noticeable good trait (nét), their other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are.
Thus, an individual who dresses smartly and shows self-confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a
job well regardless of his or her real ability.
Interviewers are also prejudiced (định kiến) by an effect called the primacy effect. This error occurs
when interpretation of later information is distorted (bóp méo) by earlier connected information. Hence, in
an interview situation, the interviewer spends most of the interview trying to confirm the impression given
by the candidate in the first few moments. Studies have repeatedly demonstrated that such an impression is
unrelated to the aptitude (năng khiếu) of the applicant.

The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers. A suitable
candidate may be underestimated because he or she contrasts with a previous one who appears
exceptionally intelligent. Likewise, an average candidate who is preceded by one who gives a weak
showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she really is.
Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate, other selection
procedures have been devised (để lại, lập mưu) which more accurately predict candidate suitability. Of the
various tests devised, the predictor which appears to do this most successfully is cognitive ability as
measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests. (không gian, nhận thức)
Question 41. The word “they” in line 6 refers to _______.
A. applicants
B. judgments
C. interviewers
D. characteristics
Question 42. The word “ this” in line 20 refers to _______.
A. measure cognitive ability
B. devise personnel selection
C. predict candidate suitability
D. devise accurate tests
Question 43. This passage mainly discusses the _______.
A. Judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants.
B. Inadequacy of interviewing job
applicants.
C. Effects of interviewing on job applicants. D. Techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants.
Question 44. According to the passage, the hallo effect _______.
A. exemplifies how one good characteristic color perceptions B. takes effect only when a candidate is well
-dressed
C. stands out as the worst judgmental error
D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real
ability
Question 45. The word “hindrance” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. assistance
B. encouragement
C. procedure
D. interference
Question 46. According to the passage the first impression _______.
A. can easily be altered
B. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
C. is the one that stays with the interviewer D. has been repeatedly demonstrated to the applicant
Question 47. The word “skews” in line 14 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. improves
B. opposes
C. biases
D. distinguishes
Question 48. The author mentions all of the following reasons why interviewing is not an accurate way to
predict candidate suitability EXCEPT the _______.
A. primacy effect
B. halo effect
C. contrast effect
D. cognitive effect
Question 49. The word “confirm” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. verify
B. misrepresent
C. recollect
D. conclude
9


Question 50. The paragraphs following the passage most likely discuss which of the following?
A. More information on the kinds of judgmental effects
B. Other reasons for misjudgments of

applicants
C. Other selection procedures included in interviewing
D. More information on cognitive ability tests
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 51. The Green Garden Restaurant uses fresh produce on their dishes, much of which the owners
grow in their own garden.
A
B
C
D
Question 52. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A
B
C
D
Question 53. Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness.
A
B C
D
Question 54. A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic
A
B
C
part of the education of every child.
D
Question 55. So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the
world.
A
B
C

D
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the
tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the
wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also
seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun.
In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe.
In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and,
to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most
places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its
monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver
in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month
and are called the spring tides. At these times, the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of
the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward
against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the
Moon, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun
and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between
high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
Question 56: Neap tides occur when ____.
A. the Moon is full
B. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon’s gravitational
attraction
C. the Sun counteracts the Moon’s gravitational attraction D. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
Question 57: The word felt in line 3 is closest in meaning to____.
A. detected
B. dropped
C. explored
D. based
Question 58: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much

gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is
A. temperature
B. density
C. size
D. distance
Question 59: What is the cause of the spring tides?
A. The Earth’s movement around the Sun B. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
C. Seasonal changes in the weather
D. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
Question 60: The word correspondingly in line 8 is closest in meaning to____.
A. similarly
B. interestingly
C. unusually
D. unpredictably
Question 61: What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water
B. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water
D. The waves created by ocean currents are very large
Question 62: The words In reality in line 6 are closest in meaning to____.
A. characteristically
B. similarly
C. surprisingly
D. actually
Question 63: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those
caused by tides?
A. Lines 1 – 4
B. Lines 7 - 9 C. Lines 11 - 14
D. Lines 9 - 11
Question 64: The word configuration in line 14 is closest in meaning to____.

A. surface
B. unit
C. arrangement
D. center
Question 65: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT____.
A. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon
D. The time of high tide is later each day
Choose the sentence that is similar in meaning to the given one.
10


Question 66. There is no point in taking the exam when you are not prepared for it.
A. The exam is pointless even if you are prepared for it.
B. You are not allowed to take the exam without preparing for it.
C. You will get a very low point without a good preparation for the exam.
D. You shouldn't take the exam if you don't prepare well for it.
Question 67. I think Bob has forgotten the whole event.
A. The whole event is no longer mentioned.
B. Bob appears to have forgotten the whole event.
C. Bob must forget the whole event.
D. Nothing about the event is worth remembering.
Question 68. The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government
C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
Question 69. "If I were in your shoes, I would try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment" said the professor to his research student
A. The professor advised his student to try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the experiment.

B. The professor complained that his student didn't finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment.
C. The professor told his student that he wished he could finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment.
D. The professor regretted that his student didn't try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment.
Question 70. It / may / seem / surprise / so / much / plant / life / exist / many / island.
A. It may be seemed surprisingly that so much the plant life exists at many islands
B. It may seem surprising that so much plant life existing in many islands.
C. It may seem surprising that so much plant life exists on many islands.
D. It may seem surprised that so much of plant life to exist on many islands.
Question 71. Invitations were sent out as soon as the date of the conference was chosen.
A. After choosing the date of the conference, invitations were sent out.
B. Before sending out invitations, the date of the conference was chosen.
C. Hardly had the date of the conference been chosen when invitations were sent out.
D. Choose the date of the conference before sending out invitations.
Question 72. We had to put off our wedding until September.
A. It was not until September that our wedding had to be put off.
B. Not until September did we have to put off our wedding.
C. Our wedding until September had to be postponed.
D. Our wedding had to be postponed until
September.
Question 73. My sister worries so much about fitness that she wastes a lot of time and money.
A. My sister wastes a lot of time and money though she worries so much about fitness.
B. My sister worries about fitness so that she wastes a lot of time and money.
C. Worrying too much about fitness, my sister wastes a lot of time and money.
D. Fitness worried, my sister wastes a lot of time and money.
Question 74. If you had gone to class yesterday, you would understand why the teacher is saying what she
is saying at the moment.
A. What the teacher was saying was not comprehensible to you because you didn't go to class yesterday.

B. You were not here yesterday, so you didn't understand what the teacher was saying.
C. You were not here yesterday, so you don't understand what the teacher is saying at the moment.
D. You went to class yesterday and now understand what the teacher is saying.
Question 75. Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars. However, cars are
the greatest contributor of air pollution.
A. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
B. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to
the pollution of air.
C. It is cars that are the greatest contributor of air pollution although the invention of cars has made
transportation much easier.
D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
Choose one word whose main stress pattern is different from the others'.
Question 76: A. originate
B. evacuate
C. sanitary
D. certificate
Question 77: A. oasis
B. hurricane
C. influence
D. consequence
Question 78: A. collective
B. climatic
C. abundant
D. regional
Question 79: A. emergency
B. concentration
C. humanity
D. phenomenon

Question 80: A. continent
B. government
C. reference
D. museum
11


143. Turn off all switches before leaving the workshop.
⇒ All the switches ...................................................................................
144. It is ages since Alan visited his parents.
⇒ Alan ....................................................................................................
145. Mrs. Taylor doesn’t like living in such a small house.
⇒ Mrs. Taylor wishes .............................................................................
146. Mr. Mills lost his job because he was late everyday.
⇒ If Mr. Mills ...........................................................................................
147. James spoke to his lawyer before signing the contract.
⇒ James didn’t .......................................................................................
148. They traveled across India, and then flew on to Japan.
⇒ After ..................................................................................................
SỞ GD- ĐT HOA BINH

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2016
DE SO 23

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer .
Question 1. Nestled along the shoreline of Hudson Bay _______________.
A. are several recently settled Inuit communities B. several recently settled Inuit communities are there
C. near several recently settled Inuit communities D. is where several recently settled Inuit communities
Question 2. I am well _________ with the problems encountered in starting a business.
A. aware

B. informed
C. acquainted
D. knowledgeable
Question 3. That news came very fast. They’ll be surprised __________.
A. hearing
B. to hearing
C. at hearing
D. to hear
Question 4. The sink in the locker room tends to _________.
A. flow
B. overflow
C. flow over
D. over flowing
Question 5. – “We’ll have to hurry if we want to finish this project on time.” “_________ __”.
A. OK. But I’ll call you later.
B. I’ll say we will!
C. I’m tired. I’ll go home early.
D. What a wonderful idea!
Question 6. - “Excuse me. I’m trying to find the library.” “_____________”
A. Where’re your eyes? It’s in front of you.
B. Look no further!
C. Find it yourself. I’m busy.
D. Oh, nice to meet you.
Question 7. I haven’t had a ________ week. I seem to have done nothing at all.
A. extensive
B. productive
C. enthusiastic
D. economic
Question 8. All the plans have been put _________ for the time being.
A. down

B. up
C. aside
D. low
Question 9. We found some real _________ at the market.
A. prizes
B. goods
C. bargains
D. items
Question 10. There was a ____________________ table in the kitchen.
A. beautiful large round wooden
B. large beautiful round wooden
C. beautiful round large wooden
D. golden large beautiful round
Question 11. It was _________________ that we spent the whole day at the beach.
A. so nice a weather B. such nice weather
C. such nice a weather
D. so a nice
weather
Question 12. According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, ____.
A. my education will be employed by the university.
B. employment will be given to me by the
university.
C. the university will employ me.
D. I will be employed by the university.
Question 13. Some teachers argue that students who ____using a calculator may forget how to do mental
calculation. A. are used to
B. are used
C. is
D. were used to
Question 14. The football match tomorrow evening will be broadcasted _________ on TV and radio.

A. stimulatingly
B. simultaneously
C. jointly
D. uniformly
Question 15. – “Make yourself at home!” - “______________”
A. Yes, I can help you.
B. Thanks. The same to you.
C. Why not? I will make it to the best of my ability. D. That’s kind of you. Thank you.
Question 16. Olympiakos ______ 0 – 0 with Real Madrid in the first leg of the semi-final in Athens.
A. drew
B. equaled
C. equalized
D. shared
Question 17. The Japanese government and TEPCO ______.
A. have been criticized for poor communication with the public and improvised cleanup efforts.
B. criticized for poor communication with the public and improvised cleanup efforts.
C. have been criticized for poor communication with the public and improvise cleanup efforts.
D. have been criticizing for poor communication with the public and improvising cleanup efforts.
Question 18. The problem needs to be ______________ urgently.
A. addressed
B. dealt with
C. thought
D. cleared
12


Question 19. The city _________ at one time prosperous, for it enjoyed a high level of civilization.
A. should have been
B. was
C. may have been

D. must have been
Question 20. - “Oh, I have to leave. Bye.”
- “___________________”
A. Bye. Nice to meet you too.B. Good day!
C. Good job! See you later. D. Please, don’t move!
Question 21. Near the parked is a famous landmark __________ the Unification Palace.
A. whose named
B. called
C. is
D. is called
Question 22. Old Behrman, the main character in the short story “The Last Leaf” by O Henry is a simple,
kind-hearted artist who always dreams of painting a masterpiece. The word “masterpiece” can be best
replaced by:
A. good principal
B. an expensive piece of painting
C. a large piece of painting
D. an excellent work of art
Question 23. If you do not want to _______ the chance, _________ a decision soon.
A. miss/makes
B. take/make
C. miss/make
D. miss/take
Question 24. Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as ___________ as possible.
A. economical
B. economically
C. uneconomically D. beautifully
Question 25. Let’s go for a walk, _________?
A. shan’t we
B. shall us
C. shall we

D. will we?
Question 26. The school boy __________down to tie his shoestring.
A. stopped
B. leaned
C. turned
D. went
Question 27. Can you recite the alphabet __________?
A. reverse
B. around
C. backwards
D. returned
Question 28. He said he would contribute money, but later he __________ of it.
A. backed down
B. backed out
C. turned away
D. backed away
Question 29. Poverty has reached _________ proportions in this country.
A. incubate
B. epidemic
C. infectious
D. transmit
Question 30. The damage was far more serious than __________ believed.
A. prior
B. precedingly
C. initially
D. primarily
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest .
Question 31. A. salamander 1 B. sanatorium 3
C. sanitarium
D. saturation

Question 32. A. refugee
B. decisive 2
C. catastrophe
D. committee
Question 33. A. even
B. evermore 3
C. euphemism
D. journey
Question 34. A. magazine
B. returnee
C. misfortune
D. monomania
Question 35. A. purview
B. promptitude
C. property
D. profound
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer .
The brain is the center of the nervous system in all vertebrate and most invertebrate (0 xương sống)
animals. Some primitive animals such as jellyfish and starfish have a decentralized (phân quyền) nervous
system without a brain, while sponges (bọt biển) lack any nervous system at all. In vertebrates(có xương
sống) the brain is located in the head, protected by the skull and close to the primary sensory apparatus of
vision, hearing, balance, taste, and smell.
Brains can be extremely complex. The cerebral cortex (vỏ) of the human brain contains roughly 15–33
billion neurons, perhaps more, depending on gender and age, linked with up to 10,000 synaptic (tiếp hợp)
connections each. Each cubic millimeter of cerebral cortex contains roughly one billion synapses. These
neurons communicate with one another by means of long protoplasmic (nguyên sinh) fibers called axons
(trục), which carry trains of signal pulses called action potentials to distant parts of the brain or body and
target them to specific recipient cells.
The brain controls the other organ systems of the body, either by activating muscles or by causing secretion
(tiết) of chemicals such as hormones and neurotransmitters (loạn thần kinh). This centralized control allows

rapid and coordinated responses to changes in the environment. Some basic types of responsiveness are
possible without a brain: even single-celled organisms may be capable of extracting information from the
environment and acting in response to it. Sponges, which lack a central nervous system, are capable of
coordinated body contractions and even locomotion (vận động). In vertebrates, the spinal cord (tuỷ sống)
by itself contains neural circuitry (mạch) capable of generating reflex responses as well as simple motor
patterns such as swimming or walking. However, sophisticated control of behavior on the basis of complex
sensory input requires the information-integrating capabilities of a centralized brain.
Despite rapid scientific progress, much about how brains work remains a mystery. The operations of
individual neurons and synapses are now understood in considerable detail, but the way they cooperate in
ensembles (bộ) of thousands or millions has been very difficult to decipher (giải mã). Methods of
observation such as EEG recording and functional brain imaging tell us that brain operations are highly
organized, while single unit recording can resolve the activity of single neurons, but how individual cells
give rise to complex operations is unknown.
Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Brain – human’s most complex part of the body.
B. Brain’s main function.
C. An overview of the most complex part of the body – Brain.
D. The brain’s complex
operation.
Question 37. It can be inferred from the passage that______.
13


A. Jellyfish and starfish do not have brain.
B. The number of neurons in the cortex is about 15 – 33 billion, irrespective of age and gender.
C. The sponge has brain but not nervous system.
D. Neurons communicate with one another by targeting themselves to specific recipient cells.
Question 38. The word “linked” in the 2nd paragraph could be best replaced by______.
A. chained
B. connected

C. bundled
D. interfered
Question 39. Which the following is mentioned in the passage?
A. Sponges, which have no central nervous system, are capable of coordinated body contractions and
locomotion.
B. All animals have brain protected in skull.
C. 1 cm3 in cerebral cortex contains about 1,000,000,000 synapses.
D. Neural circuitry in spinal cord can control even complex response to stimuli from external environment.
Question 40. The word “This” in the 3rd paragraph refers to:
A. the brain
B. the action of the brain
C. response D. hormones and neurotransmitters
Question 41. Which of the following is impossible without the brain?
A. extracting information from the environment and acting in response to it.
B. generating reflex responses as well as simple motor patterns such as swimming or walking.
C. control behavior on the basis of complex sensory input which requires the information-integrating
capabilities
D. coordinated body contractions and even locomotion
Question 42. The word “decipher” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. decode
B. devalued
C. observe
D. distract
Question 43. Methods of observation such as EEG recording and functional brain imaging tell us______.
A. how individual cells give rise to complex operations is unknown.
B. the works of brain are highly
organized.
C. single unit recording can resolve the activity of single neurons. D. nothing.
Question 44. The word “complex” in the 2nd paragraph can be best replaced by______.
A. compliant

B. confused
C. complication
D. intricate
Question 45. The passage can be described as______.
A. informative
B. complicating
C. romantic
D. thrilling
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer .
Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Drought, storms, and fires can
change ecosystems. Some changes (46) _harm_ the ecosystem. If there is too little rainfall, plants will not
have enough water to live. If a kind of plant die (47) _off_, the animals that (48) _feed on_ it may also die
or move away. Some changes are good for ecosystem. Some pine forests need (49) _burning_ for the pine
trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat from a forest fire melts the seal and lets the
seeds (50) _ out _.
Polluting the air, soils, water can harm ecosystems. Building (51) _ dams _ on rivers for electric power and
irrigation can harm ecosystems (52) _ around_ the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down (53)
_forests _ destroy ecosystems. Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better ways
of (54) _catching_ fish, cutting down trees, and building dams. They are looking for ways to get food,
lumber, and other products for people (55) _without_ causing harm to ecosystems.
Question 46. A. harm
B. harmless
C. harmful
D. harms
Question 47. A. off
B. away
C. over
D. forever
Question 48. A. fed with
B. feed on

C. fed up with
D. feed
Question 49. A. flame
B. fires
C. blaze
D. burning
Question 50. A. fly
B. in
C. go
D. out
Question 51. A. moats
B. ditches
C. bridges
D. dams
Question 52. A. on
B. around
C. over
D. under
Question 53. A. hills
B. jungles
C. forests
D. woods
Question 54. A. catching
B. holding
C. carrying
D. taking
Question 55. A. avoid
B. without
C. not
D. no

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correction.
Question 56. Isabella danced in her bare feet and wore loose-fitting clothing garments that allowed her
freedom of movement.
A
B
C
D
Question 57. Most fatty acids have been founded as essential components of lipid molecules.
A
B
C
D
Question 58. Antarctic blue whales can be 100 foot long and weigh more than any dinosaur that
ever lived.
A
B
C
D
Question 59. In seeking its representative writers, twentieth-century America seems to be searching
A
B
for someone who chronicle the chaos and lack of direction reflected in some contemporary values.
C
D
Question 60. The enclosing card gives details about room rates and services.
14


A
B

C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
Question 61. My father’s going to go up the wall when he finds out that I’ve lost the car keys.
A. My father’s going to climb up the wall when he finds out that I’ve lost the car keys.
B. My father’s going to be really angry when he finds out that I’ve lost the car keys.
C. My father’s going to be really disappointed when he finds out that I’ve lost the car keys.
D. My father’s going to forgive me when he finds out that I’ve lost the car keys.
Question 62. People rumored that he had died in the battle.
A. He was rumored to die in the batted.
B. He was rumored to be died in the
battle.
C. He was rumored to have been assassinated in the battle. D. He was rumored to have died in the battle.
Question 63. After 4 years abroad, he returned home as an excellent engineer.
A. After he studied 4 years abroad, he returned home as an excellent engineer.
B. After he has studied for 4 years abroad, he returned home as an excellent engineer.
C. After he studied 4 years abroad, he returned home as an excellent engineer.
D. After he had studied for 4 years abroad, he returned home as an excellent engineer.
Question 64. Hung said that whatever happened, it was Hoa’s fault.
A. Hung blamed Hoa at what happened.
B. Hung blamed Hoa on what happened.
C. Hung blamed Hoa for what happened.
D. Hung blamed Hoa of what happened.
Question 65. In spite of heavy rain, my brother went to work.
A. In spite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.
B. Although it rained heavily, my brother went
to work.
C. Despite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.
D. Though rain was heavily, my brother went
to work.

Question 66. My little tent was dwarfed by the mountain.
A. My tent was very small, which dwarfed the mountain.
B. My little tent looked very small against the
mountain.
C. The mountain was so high that my tent was dwarfed it.
D. The little tent of mine couldn’t be seen couldn’t be seen from the dwarfed mountain.
Question 67. Our company holds the monopoly over the import of these chemicals.
A. Our company is one of the few companies allowed to import these chemicals
B. Ours is the only company allowed to import these chemicals.
C. All companies but ours are allowed to import these chemicals.
D. These exported chemicals are held by our company, which is monopoly.
Question 68. We run the business as a joint venture.
A. We run the business, which produce joint venture.
B. We were risky to run the business.
C. We run the business together.
D. We run a business just for a venture.
Question 69. Much as I admire his courage, I think he’s foolish to do such a thing.
A. Though I admire him, I think his courage is foolish.
B. Though I admire his courage, I am a foolish to do such a thing for him.
C. Although I admire his courage, I think he’s foolish to do such a thing.
D. Although I admire his courage, he’s a foolish to do such a thing.
Question 70. Abrams will stand trial murder at the High Court next week.
A. They will try Abrams for murder at High Court next week.
B. Abrams will try to find the murder at the High Court next week.
C. Abrams murdered, which made him try the High Court next week.
D. The High Court murdered Abrams, who will stand trial next week.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
The Fukushima I nuclear accidents are a series of ongoing equipment failures and releases of radioactive
materials (chất p/xạ) at the Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant, following the 9.0 magnitude (tầm quan
trọng) Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami on 11 March 2011. The plant comprises six separate boiling water

reactors maintained by the Tokyo Electric Power Company (TEPCO). This accident is the largest of the
2011 Japanese nuclear accidents arising from the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami, and experts consider it
to be the second largest nuclear accident after the Chernobyl disaster, but more complex as all reactors are
involved.
At the time of the quake, reactor 4 had been de-fueled while 5 and 6 were in cold shutdown for planned
maintenance. The remaining reactors shut down automatically after the earthquake, with emergency
generators starting up to run the control electronics and water pumps needed to cool reactors. The plant was
protected by a seawall designed to withstand a 5.7 metres (19 ft) tsunami but not the 14-metre (46 ft)
maximum wave which arrived 41–60 minutes after the earthquake. The entire plant was flooded, including
low-lying generators and electrical switchgear in reactor basements and external pumps for supplying
cooling seawater. The connection to the electrical grid was broken. All power for cooling was lost and
reactors started to overheat, due to natural decay of the fission products created before shutdown. The
flooding and earthquake damage hindered external assistance.
15


Evidence soon arose of partial core meltdown in reactors 1, 2, and 3; hydrogen explosions destroyed the
upper cladding (vỏ ngoài) of the buildings housing reactors 1, 3, and 4; an explosion damaged the
containment inside reactor 2; multiple fires broke out at reactor 4. Despite being initially shutdown,
reactors 5 and 6 began to overheat. Fuel rods stored in pools in each reactor building began to overheat as
water levels in the pools dropped. Fears of radiation leaks led to a 20-kilometre (12 mi) radius evacuation
around the plant while workers suffered radiation exposure and were temporarily evacuated at various
times. One generator at unit 6 was restarted on 17 March allowing some cooling at units 5 and 6 which
were least damaged. Grid power was restored to parts of the plant on 20 March, but machinery for reactors
1 through 4, damaged by floods, fires and explosions, remained inoperable. Flooding with radioactive water
through the basements of units 1–4 continues to prevent access to carry out repairs.
Measurements taken by the Japanese science ministry and education ministry in areas of northern Japan
30–50 km from the plant showed radioactive caesium (xê-ri) levels high enough to cause concern. Food
grown in the area was banned from sale. It was suggested that worldwide measurements of iodine-131 and
caesium-137 indicate that the releases from Fukushima are of the same order of magnitude as the releases

of those isotopes from the Chernobyl disaster in 1986; Tokyo officials temporarily recommended that tap
water should not be used to prepare food for infants. Plutonium contamination has been detected in the soil
at two sites in the plant. Two workers hospitalized as a precaution on 25 March had been exposed to
between 2000 and 6000 mSv of radiation at their ankles when standing in water in unit 3.
Question 71. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Japanese natural disaster – the nuclear power accident.
B. Fukushima I nuclear accident – the largest nuclear power of all time.
C. The nuclear power accident – Japanese catastrophe.
D. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant.
Question 72. It can be inferred from the passage that_____.
A. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant is the world’s largest nuclear accident.
B. The accident happened in the early part of the year 2011.
C. Chernobyl is the world’s largest and most complex nuclear accident.
D. Reactor doesn’t involve in the accident.
Question 73. The word “ongoing” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. old-fashioned
B. onslaught
C. continuous
D. disastrous
Question 74. The word “withstand” in the second paragraph is could be best replaced by_____.
A. stand
B. stand together
C. wrestle
D. strike
Question 75. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT_____.
A. The cause of the accident is the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami.
B. The earthquake causes a great damage to Japan and the neighboring country.
C. The tsunami struck the country after the earthquake had occurred approximately an hour.
D. The reactor was barred from external assistance because of the flooding and earthquake damage.
Question 76. According to the passage, which of the followings is NOT true?

A. The plant suffered a 14-metre seawall. B. The highest wave was 46 ft in height.
C. The reactor 5 and 6 started overheating though they were in cold shutdown for maintenance.
D. The flood with water containing radioactivity made it impossible for the machinery to be repaired.
Question 77. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred?
A. The Chernobyl disaster happened in the late 19th century.
B. Food was banned from sale for fear that the country would run out of food.
C. The people in Tokyo were advised not to use tap water to cook for children.
D. Two workers were sent to hospital as they were exposed to radiation when standing in water in unit 3.
Question 78. The word “inoperable” in the passage could be best replaced by_____.
A. incompatible
B. impracticable
C. irrepressible
D. mysterious
Question 79. When the earthquake occurred, how many plants were inactive?
A. 3
B. 4, 5, 6
C. 5, 6
D. 5
Question 80. Why does the author mention “plutonium contamination” in the last paragraph?
A. to show that the Japanese discovered plutonium mine after the nuclear accident.
B. to show that plutonium was contaminated after the nuclear accident.
C. to show that the soil was polluted by plutonium. D. to give an example of soil containing natural
resource.
149. “You’d better go to the doctor if you’ve got a pain in your back, Anna.” Henry said.
⇒ Henry suggested ................................................................................
150. The heat was such that I nearly fainted.
⇒ It was ..................................................................................................
151. I’m going to the theatre tomorrow, and I’m really looking forward to it.
⇒ I’m really looking ................................................................................
152. I thought it would be better than that.

⇒ It’s not ................................................................................................
153. My brother and I both went to that school.
⇒ I went to that school and so ................................................................
16


154. No one has ever discussed that question.
⇒ That question ......................................................................................
155. I often get up early.
⇒ I am used ............................................................................................
156. I am sorry I interrupted your dinner.
⇒ I apologize ..........................................................................................
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ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2016
DE SO 24

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer .
Question 1: _____ be needed, the water basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should
B. When hydroelectric power
C. Hydroelectric power
D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 2: The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes_____ the housewives
with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave
B. have left
C. has left
D. to have left
Question 3: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to_____ what she missed while she was away.

A. catch up on
B. cut down on
C. put up with
D. take up with
Question 4: Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening.
Barbara: _____.
A. You are welcome
B. Have a good day
C. Thanks
D. Cheer!
Question 5: I have English classes _____ day - on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays.
A. all other
B. each other
C. every other
D. this and the other
Question 6: She was _____ she could not say anything.
A. so surprised at the news that
B. such surprised at the news that
C. so surprised of the news that
D. so that surprised for the news
Question 7: There is a huge amount of _____ associated with children’s TV shows nowadays.
A. produce
B. manufacturing
C. merchandising
D. sales
Question 8: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as
different as _____.
A. cats and dogs
B. chalk and cheese
C. salt and pepper

D. here and there
Question 9: It’s essential that every student _____ the exam before attending the course.
A. pass
B. passes
C. would pass
D. passed
Question 10: I decided to go to the library as soon as I_____.
A. finish what I did
B. would finish what I did
C. finished what I did
D. finished what I was doing
Question 11: _____ in the street yesterday was very friendly.
A. The mounted police, who I saw
B. The mounted police I saw whom
C. Who is the mounted police I saw
D. The mounted police whom I saw
Question 12: A washing machine of this type will certainly_____ normal domestic use.
A. stand up for
B. come up with
C. get on to
D. take down with
Question 13: “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the
teacher said.
A. visible
B. audible
C. edible
D. eligible
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified their dead through the use of chemicals, _____ ancient
Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. because

B. whereas
C. even though
D. whether or not
Question 15: It is very difficult to_____ the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language.
A. convert
B. convey
C. exchange
D. transfer
Question 16: Issues from price, place, promotion, and product are_____ of marketing strategies planning,
despite growing calls to expand the range of issues in today’s more complex world.
A. these that are among the most conventional concerns
B. among the most conventional
concerns
C. they are among the most conventional concerns D. those are among the most conventional concerns
Question 17: Please cut my hair _____ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length as
B. the same length like C. the same long like
D. the same long as
Question 18: Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere
when_____ , while it is only in the atmosphere that chlorofluorocarbons find their home.
A. by releasing emissions from cars
B. released from car emissions
C. cars that release emissions
D. emissions are released by cars
Question 19: Half of the children were away from school last week because of_____ of influenza.
A. a break- out
B. a breakthrough
C. an outburst
D. an outbreak
Question 20: A: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!

17


B: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
A. I couldn’t agree more.
B. I understand what you’re saying.
C. You’re right.
D. I don’t see in that way.
Question 21: So little_____ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.
A. I have known
B. I knew
C. do I know
D. did I know
Question 22: It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to_____ to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this time!
A. hitch up
B. put on
C. wear in
D. get dressed up
Question 23: _____ so aggressive, we’d get on much better.
A. She was not
B. Had she not
C. Weren’t she
D. If she weren’t
Question 24: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. Upon reflection
B. After discussing with my wife
C. For this time only
D. For the second time
Question 25: A: _____.
B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.

A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
Question 26: I studied English for four years in high school. _____ had trouble talking with people when I
was traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, I
B. Otherwise, I
C. Although I
D. However, I
Question 27: _____ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. Frost is produced
B. Frost produces
C. What produces frost
D. What is frost produced
Question 28: All_____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed
B. for our needs
C. the thing needed
D. that is needed
Question 29: He said that the plane had already left and that I_____ an hour earlier.
A. Must have arrived
B. had to arrive
C. should have arrived
D. was supposed to arrive
Question 30: There seems to be a large _____ between the number of people employed in service
industries, and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discriminate
B. discretion
C. discrepancy

D. distinguish
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer .
COULD COMPUTER GAMES BE GOOD FOR YOU AFTER ALL
In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the
cinema or renting videos. But is this 31 _________ a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been 32
________ that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, badtempered, even violent as a 33 ________. But new research, 34 ________out in both Europe and the USA,
suggests that the opposite may be true.
Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills.
Researchers claim that this is because the games 35 ________ the brain work harder in certain ways, like
36 ________sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play the
games repeatedly 37 ________ that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to
become highly developed.
Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person shooter games (38
________)
“Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co-operation, and that this
(39 ________ )them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So
rather than (40 ________g) up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more time on them?
Question 31. A. necessarily
B. certainly
C. fully
D. nearly
Question 32. A. speaking
B. informing
C. telling
D. saying
Question 33. A. product
B. result
C. reason
D. conclusion
Question 34. A. worked

B. thought
C. turned
D. carried
Question 35. A. make
B. force
C. push
D. keep
Question 36. A. realizing
B. noticing
C. imagining
D. solving
Question 37. A. means
B. asks
C. brings
D. causes
Question 38. A. in order to
B. such as
C. due to
D. as well as
Question 39. A. supports
B. helps
C. shows
D. serves
Question 40. A. giving
B. ending
C. taking
D. stopping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet .
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting (truyền đạt) information by use of

language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through
performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is
pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh (chua, chói), by the rhythm that is inherent within the language
itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch
18


and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or
fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above
the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect
intuitive (trực giác) sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or
excitement, all of which are .usually discernible (nhận rõ) by the acute listener. Public performance is a
manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice
and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination
with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic,
political, or pedagogic (sư phạm) communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional
health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive,
outgoing, or exuberant (cới mở), to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to
the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a
speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can
drastically (mạnh mẽ) alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional
health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted (hẹp hòi) and harsh
sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic (thờ ơ) qualities of the depressed.
Question 41. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The function of the voice in performance
B. Communication styles
C. The connection between voice and personality
D. The production of speech
Question 42. What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and

feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express
than ideas.
Question 43. The word "Here" in line 9 refers to_____.
A. interpersonal interactions
B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings
D. words chosen
Question 44. The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. discussed
B. prepared
C. registered
D. obtained
Question 45. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15?
A. As examples of public performance
B. As examples of basic styles of communication
C. To contrast them to singing
D. To introduce the idea of self-image
Question 46. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's____.
A. general physical health
B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
Question 47. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide_____.
A. hostility
B. shyness
C. friendliness
D. strength

Question 48. The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. frequently
B. exactly
C. severely
D. easily
Question 49. The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. questioned
B. repeated
C. indicated
D. exaggerated
Question 50. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy
B. Depression
C. Boredom
D. Anger
Mark the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently .
Question 51:
A. merchant
B. sergeant
C. commercial
D. term
Question 52:
A. colonel
B. journal
C. touring
D. adjourn
Question 53:
A. obstacle
B. obscure
C. obsession

D. oblivious
Question 54:
A. amuses
B. purses
C. blouses
D. pleases
Question 55:
A. Valentine
B. imagine
C. discipline
D. determine
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer .
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the world's species
have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns
of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general
public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation
issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the
striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the
British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of
tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical
zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant
groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather
19


man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon

basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In
other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the
documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made.
Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the
evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples
because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by
imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 56: The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. result
B. explanation
C. analysis
D. requirement
Question 57: The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. physical
B. confusing
C. noticeable
D. successful
Question 58: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they_____.
A. are simple in structure
B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people
D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 59: The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. locate
B. allow
C. go beyond
D. come close to
Question 60: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?

A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
Question 61: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity
EXCEPT_____.
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 62: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics
B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names
D. Their variety
Question 63: The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 16-17 as an example of a location where_____.
A. butterfly behavior varies with climate
B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
C. butterflies are affected by human populations
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 64: The word "generated" in line 24 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. requested
B. caused
C. assisted
D. estimated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 65: All of the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among the friendly to human
A
B
C
D

Question 66: Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is
A
B
C
wood pulp, which is used in paper-making.
D
Question 67: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and
A
B
the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
C
D
Question 68: Chicago's Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the
A
B
C
ground to the top of it antenna.
D
Question 69: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting
A
B
C
to pass the exam.
D
Question 70: In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what
A
B
C
he won a Newberry Caldecot award.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning .
Question 71: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
20


A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work. B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
Question 72: The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted.
A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks. B. The hostess tried hard to please her
guests.
C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess.
D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks.
Question 73: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time.
A. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early.
B. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure.
C. The meeting lasted much longer than usual. D. There was not enough time to hold the meeting.
Question 74: Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. More men than women have insurance. B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.
Question 75: Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer.
B. More people have summer colds than winter colds.
C. People get colder in the summer than in the winter.
D. The winter is much colder than the summer.
Mark the your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that expresses the best meaning formed .
Question 76:. No/ doubt/ Alison/ promote
A. It’s no doubt Alison will be promoting. B. There’s no doubt that Alison will be promoted.
C. There’s no doubt Alison will promote. D. It’s no doubt that Alison is promoted.
Question 77: your organization/ possible/ conference/ place

A. Your organization made it possible to take place this conference.
B. Your organization made possible for this conference to take place.
C. Your organization made it possible this conference to take place.
D. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.
Question 78: when/ you/ make/ mind/ university/ attend?
A. When are you going to make up your mind about which university to attend?
B. When will you make up your mind which university to attend?
C. When are you going to make your mind about which university to attend?
D. When are you making up your mind about university to attend?
Question 79: I/ not see/ point/ rule/ we/ not/ cycle/ school
A. I can’t see the point of this rule which we don’t cycle to school.
B. I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school.
C. I don’t see the point of this rule which we are not allowed to cycle to school.
D. I can’t see the point of rule which says we can’t cycle to school.
Question 80: despite / short day/ we/ complain/ much/ do
A. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain about having too much to do.
B. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain having too much to do.
C. Despite a short day, we tend to complain about too much to do.
D. Despite such short day, we tend to complain about having too much do.
157. Getting a good job doesn’t interest him.
⇒ He .......................................................................................................
158. When did you start working here?
⇒ How long ............................................................................................
159. The children should be in bed by now.
⇒ It’s time ..............................................................................................
160. How old do you think this house?
⇒ When do you think ..............................................................................
161. “You stole the jewels” the inspector said to him.
⇒ The inspector accused .......................................................................
162. If it doesn’t rain soon, millions of pound’s worth of crops will be lost.

⇒ Unless ..............................................................................................
163. “Don’t move or I’ll shoot” the bank robber said to the clerk.
⇒ The bank robber threatened .............................................................
164. The drama critic of the “Daily News” regards the new plays as a major breakthrough.
⇒ According to .......................................................................................
SỞ GD- ĐT HOA BINH

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2016
DE SO 25
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Mark the answer sheet to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently .
Question 1. A. language
B. aviation
C. attraction
D. applicant
Question 2. A. nervous
B. birthday
C. worry
D. third
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest .
Question 3. A. accomplish B. establish
C. abolish
D. acronym
Question 4. A. companion B. comfortable
C. compliment
D. competence
Question 5. A. mechanic
B. memorial

C. mechanism
D. machine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 6. Children’s games, which are amusements involve more than one individual,
A
appear to be culturally universal.
B
C
D
Question 7. When I came back I realized that my camera had been disappeared
A
B
C
D
Question 8. If either of you take a vacation now, we won’t be able to finish this work.
A
B
C
D
Question 9. Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few buttons.
A
B
C
D
Question 10. Among the world’s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer .

Question 11.________ poor results but also may cause accidents.
A. Haste does not only produce
B. Haste had not only produced
C. Haste not only produces
D. Haste produces not only.
Question 12. It is important that ________.
A. an exact record should be kept
B. an exact record to be kept
C. to keep an exact record
D. keeping an exact record
Question 13. Jill has received several scholarships ________ .
A. not only because of his artistic but his academic ability
B. for both his academic ability as well as his artistic
C. because of his academic and artistic ability D. as resulting of his ability in the art and the academy
Question 14. The moon is not a planet______.
A. resembling the planets in many respects.
B. which resembles the planets in many respects.
C. but resemblance to the planets in many respects. D. although it resembles the planets in many respects.
Question 15. ______, they would have had what they wanted.
A. Had they arrived at the fair early
B. Supposing they were arriving at the fair early
C. Unless they arrived at the fair early enough.
D. If they arrived at the fair early
Question 16. Because they made too many mistakes, they fail in the exam.
A. They made very many mistakes that they fail in the exam.
B. They made too many mistakes for them to fail in the exam.
C. They made so many mistakes that they fail in the exam.
D. They made such many mistakes that they fail in the exam.
Question 17. She locked the door so as not to be disturbed
A. She locked the door in order that she wouldn’t be disturbed B. She locked the door to be not disturbed

C. She locked the door for her not to be disturbed. D. She locked the door so that not to be disturbed.
Question 18. When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high
A. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate
Question 19. Mary would rather see more historic sights than go dancing.
A. Mary would like to see historic sights and go dancing.
B. Mary likes historic sights when she can not go dancing.
C. Mary would prefer to see more historic sights rather than go dancing.
D. Mary had better see more historic sights
Question 20. Many people argue that most UFO sightings are caused by unusual weather conditions.
A. According to many people, unusual weather conditions cause most UFO sightings.
B. Many people argue that most UFO sightings are forecast by unusual weathermen
C. Many people argue that most UFO sightings resulted in unusual weather forecast.
D. Many people argue that most UFO sightings resulted unusual weather forecast.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer .
Question 21. It seemed an impossible task at times, but we carried on_____.
A. regardless
B. despite
C. in spite
D. in spite of
Question 22. He thought the talk was fascinating. His friend, _______, fell asleep halfway through it.
A. although
B. nevertheless
C. however
D. B or C
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Question 23. Have you really got no money_______ the fact that you've had a part-time job this term?
A. although
B. in spite of
C. because of
D. in case
Question 24. The doctor gave the patient_____ examination to discover the cause of his collapse.
A. a thorough
B. a whole
C. an exact
D. a universal
Question 25. Her book is about the_______ between women and men.
A. unequality
B. disequality
C. inequality
D. non-equality
Question 26. This section of the car park is_______ for visitors.
A. private
B. reserved
C. given
D. put
Question 27. The role of women in society has been greatly _______in the last few years.
A. overlooked
B. overtaken
C. overcome
D. overcast
Question 28. Only 40 % of 5-year-olds have_______ to pre-school children.
A. access
B. approach
C. denial
D. recognition

Question 29. He has been_______ from running a political office for five years.
A. missed
B. avoided
C. made
D. barred
Question 30. Delegates will meet with_______ from industry and the government.
A. represented
B. representative
C. representatives
D. representers
Question 31 Sports drinks have caught _______ as consumers have become more health- conscious.
A. in
B. at
C. out
D. on
Question 32. The order_______ him to appear as a witness.
A. compelled
B. made
C. let
D. discouraged
Question 33. It's a program that give some insight into the _______ life of the Victorians.
A. household
B. inner
C. house
D. domestic
Question 34. _______having a good salary, he also has a private income.
A. What's more
B. Furthermore
C. Apart from
D. From

Question 35. - Are you going to John’s wedding ? - I do not know, it ______. I might take the exams that
weekend.
A. is all depended
B. all is depending
C. all depends
D. all depend
Question 36. The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids.
A. removed quickly B. cleaned well
C. changed completely
D. destroyed
completely
Question 37. - Did your brother go to France ? - No, our parents suggested that we_____ there at night.
A. not go
B. not going
C. not to go
D. won’t go
Question 38. - Why not open the windows to let _______ clean air in ?
- I’d rather you didn’t . _______ air in our town is quite polluted ?
A. 0 (nothing)- 0
B. 0- The
C. a- The
D. The- 0
Question 39. _______ at his lessons, still he couldn’t catch up with his classmates.
A. Hardly as he worked B. Hard as he worked C. Hard as he does
D. Hard as he was
Question 40. “ How long is the seminar ?”
“______ knowledge, it takes about three hours.”
A. To my best
B. To the best of my C. In my best of
D. In my best

Question 41.My daughter saw an elephant this morning but she ______ one before.
A. had never seen
B. has never seen
C. never sees
D. never had seen
Question 42. Last week, my professor promised that he ______ today.
A. would come
B. will come
C. comes
D. coming
Question 43. He fell over while skiing and my sister had to______ a doctor.
A. bring
B. take
C. fetch
D. carry
Question 44. I am reading this novel. By the time you come back from work I______.
A. shall finish
B. will finish
C. shall have finished D. have finished
Question 45. Not until ______ home ______ that he had taken someone else's bike.
A. he got/ he realized B. he got/ did he realize C. did he get/ he realized
D. he got/ he did realize
Question 46. He was ______ teacher!
A. how good a
B. so good a
C. so a good
D. what a good
Question 47. “This is not a good essay”, said the lecturer. “I find your arguments ______.”
A. convincing
B. convincingly

C. unconvincing
D. unconvincingly
Question 48. There are many ways______ to Rome
A. is leading
B. are leading
C. leading
D. led
Question 49. What chemical is this ? It is ______ a horrible smell .
A. giving down
B. giving off
C. giving up
D. giving out .
Question 50. I got impatient waiting for my turn to _________.
A. go out
B. set out
C. come out
D. work out
Put a suitable word in the blank by marking the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet.
Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know that an “intranet” is? It is this: just as the Internet
connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a (51)____ company. In fact, intranets
make use of the same software programs as the Internet to (52)____ computers and people. This (53)____
that you do not have to buy a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your intranet is
working properly, it can link together a huge amount of (54)____ which is stored in different places in the
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company. In this way, people can get the information they need, regardless (55)____ where it comes from.
A company intranet can , of course, be used for unimportant information like office memos or canteen
menus. But an intranet should (56)____ important information which people need to make decision about
new products, costs and so on. The intranet is (57)____ to share their information with other people.

(58)____, many departments don’t want to share their specialist knowledge with others. Another problem
which often occurs is (59)____ top managers like to use the intranet to “ communicate down” rather than to
“ communicate across”. That is, they use the intranet to give orders, not to (60)____ information between
themselves and others working in the same organization.
Question 51. A. large
B. jointed
C. single
D. branch
Question 52. A. contact
B. introduce
C. distinguish
D. compare
Question 53. A. is
B. is said
C. indicates
D. means
Question 54. A. parts
B. information
C. elements
D. properties
Question 55. A. on
B. with
C. of
D. to
Question 56. A. bring
B. provide
C. give
D. take
Question 57. A. likely
B. willing

C. going
D. happened
Question 58. A. Luckily
B. Consequently
C. However
D. Unfortunately
Question 59. A. that
B. what
C. which
D. it
Question 60. A. change
B. exchange
C. transform
D. transit
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer .
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a greater
priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily available,
renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such resources are solar power
and geothermal power. Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could
meet the needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed
through the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100,
000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in
other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power,
which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are
trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is produces
electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel
resources. And as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A
prime example of effective geothermal use is in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where over 80
percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal energy are just two of

promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the
development and use of alternative energy on global scale.
Question 61. What is the main topic of this passage ?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 62. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources ?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
Question 63. Which of the following words could best replace the word “ harnessing”
A. Capturing
B. Harassing
C. Depleting
D. Exporting
Question 64. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries. C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 65. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy
production ?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 66. Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence:
“ Although the US is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a similar
capacity to generate geothermal power”

A. after the phrase ” earth-friendly”
B. after the phrase “ growing steadily”
C. after the phrase “ by geothermal power”
D. after the phrase “ global scale”
Question 67. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power ?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes
worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
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Question 68. What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
Question 69. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources ?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power
Question 70. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage ?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
C. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer .
Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very different

types of flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of the sharks,
have become flat in what might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out sideways to form
great “wings”. They look as though they have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “ the right
way up”. Conversely, fish such as plaice, sole, and halibut have become flat in a different way. There are
bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical direction; they are much “ taller” than
they are wide. They use their whole, vertically flattened bodies as swimming surfaces, which undulate
through the water as they move. Therefore, when their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one
side than on their bellies- However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking down into the
sand and was effectively useless – In evolution this problem was solved by the lower eye “ moving” around
the other side. We see this process of moving around enacted in the development of every young bony
flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface, and is symmetrical and vertically flattened , but then the
skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted fashion, so that one eye, for instance the left, moves
over the top of the head upwards, an old Picasso- like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle
on the right side, others on the left, and others on either side.
Question 71. The passage is mainly concerned with:
A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish
C. evolution of flatfish
D. different types of flatfish
Question 72. The phrase “ hugging the contours” in the line 1 means:
A. swimming close to the seabed
B. hiding in the sand at the bottom of the sea.
C. Floating just below the surface.
D. Lying still on the sea bottom.
Question 73. In lines 2- 5, the author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that:
A. become asymmetrical
B. appear to fly C. have spread horizontally
D. resemble sharks
Question 74. It can be inferred from the passage that horizontal symmetrical fish:
A. have one eye each side of the head
B. have one eye underneath the head

C. have two eyes on top of the head
D. have eyes that move around the head
Question 75. The word “conversely” in line 5 is closest in meaning to:
A. Similarly
B. Alternatively
C. Inversely
D. Contrarily
Question 76. According to the passage, fish such as plaice:
A. have difficulties in swimming
B. live near the surface
C. have poor eyesight
D. have distorted heads
Question 77. The word “ undulate” in line 9 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Sway
B. Flutter
C. Flap
D. Leap
Question 78. In line 10, the word “ this” refers to
A. the migration of the ancestors
B. the practice of lying on one side
C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards D. the difficulty of the only one eye being useful
Question 79. According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is:
A. average
B. weak
C. excellent
D. variable
Question 80. It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is:
A. often confusing
B. pretty normal
C. very difficult

D. full of danger.
165. Although the team played well, they lost.
⇒ Despite .............................................................................................
166. Galileo is considered to be the father of modern astronomy.
⇒ Galileo is regarded ..........................................................................
167. The only way you can become a good athlete is by training hard everyday.
⇒ Only by .............................................................................................
168. He speaks more persuasively than his brother.
⇒ He is a ...............................................................................................
169. If you want my advice, I would forget about buying a new house.
⇒ If I .......................................................................................................
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