SỞ GD&ĐT HÀ TĨNH

KỲ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016

TRƯỜNG THPT HỒNG LĨNH

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

-------****-------

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao
đề)

SECTION A (8 points)
Choose the answer among A, B, C, D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others:
1. A. father

B. healthy

C. other

D. another

2. A. washed

B. matched

C. intended

D. walked

Choose the answer among A, B, C, D whose stress position is different from the others:
3. A. appear

B. decide

C. require

D. cancel

4. A. eradication

B. resolution

C. contradiction

D. similarity

5. A. reformulate

B. scientific

C. considerable

D. exclude

Choose the answer among A, B, C, D to complete each of the sentences below:
6. The book___________ you are reading is really useful for all the exams
A. which

B. who


C. what

D. it

7. When I passed their house, all the lights had been turned off. They_____________ to bed already.
A. must go

B. should have gone

C. must have gone

D. need have gone

8. __________ really worn out from hard work, she managed to amuse us with a funny story.
A. Despite

B. Because of

C. Because

D. Although

9. By this time next year, my new house___________, and we can move into it.
A. will finish

B. will have been finished

C. will have finished D. will be finished


10. It is no good____________ to him about the problem. He’s as deaf as a pole.
A. complain

B. to complain

C. complaining

D. complaint

11. I am wondering what____________if our ecosystem were completely destroyed?
A. will happen

B. would have happened

C. happened

D. would happen

12. Jane: “Did you step on her foot by accident or________ purpose?”
A. on

B. in

C. by

Mary: “Delibrately”

D. through

13. My sister has just bought a___________at that shop, which is situated at the corner of Tran Phu Street.

A. pullover beautiful pink woolen

B. pink beautiful woolen pullover

C. beautiful pink woolen pullover

D. woolen beautiful pink pullover

14. Could you please give me a lift to work tomorrow? My motorbike is____________today.
A. out of date

B. out of work

C. out of mind

15. We put his rude manner___________ignorance of the local customs .

D. out of order


A. down to

B. up with

C. up to

D. off at

16. He has devoured to learn English the past months ___________getting a chance to study abroad.
A. with a view of


B. with a view to

C. in regard of

D. on account of.

17. The more distance a star happens to be, ______________ to us.
A. it seems dimmer

B. the dimmest it seems

C. the dimmer it seems D. it seems dimmest.

18. The job was done____________, and we were extremely displeased.
A. incompetence

B. incompetent

C. competently

D. incompetently

19. His change of job has___________ him with a new challenge in life.
A. presented

B. introduced

C. initiated


D. led

20. Not until my mother got home________________that she had left the purse at the office.
A. that she realized

B. she realized

C. did she realize

D. did she realized

21. In order to grow vegetables productively, gardeners must know______________.
A. that the requirements for each vegetable

B. what the requirements for each vegetable are

C. what are each vegetables’ requirements

D. that is required by each vegetable

22. David: “ The final exams are coming. I seem to be too nervous!”
Linda: “___________________. It will be not so hard as you’ve expected.
A. Be careful

B. Good Luck

C. Congratulations

D. Take it easy


23. Son: “ Why don”t we buy a new car, Dad? This one is too old to go out with my friends.”
Dad: “ ______________. We don’t have much money.”
A. It is out of the question now

B. I have to think it over

C. You are right

D. That’s a great idea.

24. Kenny: “ Your hairstyle is terrific!”

Linda: “____________”

A. It’s a nice complement. Thank you.

B. Not at all

B. The same to you

D. Really? Congratulations!

Choose the best answer among A,B,C,D whose meaning is CLOSEST to the underlined part in each
sentence below:
25. The population of the United States is roughly 240 million.
A. unfortunately

B. ideally

C. approximately


D. usually

26. A legal combination of Delta Airlines and Air France was approved at a joint board of directors meeting.
A reconciliation

B. strike

C. memorandum

D. merger

27. According to federal regulations, it is required that all canned and packaged food have a list of the items
used in the recipe printed in the label.


A. ailments

B. blandishments

C. remnants

D. ingredients

Choose the best answer among A,B,C,D whose meaning is OPPOSITE to the underlined part in each
sentence below:
28. We didn’t plan to meet each other. We just met accidently.
A. intentionally

B. simultaneously


C. hurriedly

D. coincidently

29. The smell of the fish put me off the meal.
A. interested me

B. made me unable to eat the meal

C. made me want to eat the meal a lot

D. made me feel hungry

Choose the answer among A,B,C,D whose underlined part needs correcting to make sentences below
complete:
30. Jim was upset last night because he had to do too many homeworks.
A

B

C

D

31. The professor told him to write a short but it must be comprehensive paper about the
A

B


C

experiment.
D
32. This table is not sturdy enough to support a television, and that one probably isn't neither.
A

B

C

D

33. Lectures for the week of March 22-26 will include the following: The Causes of the Civil
A

B

C

War, The Economy of the South, Battle Strategies, and Assassinating Lincoln.
D
34. In 1975, according to the National Center for Health Statistics, the average life expectancy for
A
people born during that year is 72.4 years.
B

C

D


Read the passage and choose the best answer among A,B,C,D for each gap to complete it.
Most people feel that when they dream, they are (35)________ off to another world. On the (36)________,
dreams are often connected to our daily lives. When our whole (37)_________ is filled with something, when
we are either very upset (38)________ when we are in good spirit, a dream will represent this reality in
symbols. It is often (49)_______ that we benefit from dreams because they help the spirit to heal itself when
things (40)__________ wrong. Dreams are therefore a kind of escape, almost a holiday from (41)__________
life, with its fears and responsibilities. It is, however, a strange kind of holiday because whether we have a


wonderful time or whether it turns (42)_________ to be a nightmare, we quickly forget it. Most dreams
disappear forever, (43)_________ you are one of those people disciplined enough to write them down as soon
as you (44)_________.
35. A. taken

B. guided

C. brought

D. carried

36. A. contrast

B. contrary

C. other side

D. opposite

37. A. spirit


B. mind

C. brain

D. soul

38. A. unless

B. but also

C. or else

D. or

39. A. said

B. spoken

C. declared

D. started

40. A. become

B. go

C. turn

D. get


41. A. real

B. factual

C. genuine

D. actual

42. A. off

B. up

C. out

D. down

43. A. except that

B. therefore

C. thus

D. unless

44. A. wake up

B. arise

C. awake


D. rise up

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question ( 45-54) below.
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes
extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a
species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a
species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food Resources may
be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems. For a species requiring these resources.
Other species may become better adapted to an Environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the
death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses
have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time – a mass extinction.
One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of
dinosaurs and many other forms of life.
Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, When
approximately 95 percent of all species died, Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the
environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something
were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop,
affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 Million years have
tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the
Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also


speculated tat extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may
survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to
adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
45. The word “it” in line 2 refers to
A. environment


B. species

C. extinction

D. 99 percent

46. The word “ultimately” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally

B. dramatically

C. eventually

D. unfortunately

47. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history
A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
C. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
D. They are no longer in existence.
48. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Temperature changes

B. Availability of food resources

C. Introduction of new species

D. Competition among species


49. Why is “ plankton” mentioned in line 15?
A. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
B. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.
C. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean
D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.
50. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
B. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive
C. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
51. The word “finding” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. published information

B. research method

C. ongoing experiment

D. scientific discovery

52. The word “demise” in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. change

B. recovery

C. help

D. death

53. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?
A. It reflects the interrelationship of may species.

C. It does not vary greatly from species to species

B. It may depend on chance events.
D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.


54. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occurred
A. 26 million years ago

B. 65 million years ago

C. 225 million years ago

D. 250 million years ago

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question (55-64) below.
By far the most important United States export product in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries was
cotton, favored by the European textile industry over flax or wool because it was easy to process and soft to
tile touch. Mechanization of spinning and weaving allowed significant centralization and expansion in the
textile industry during this period, and at the same time the demand for cotton increased dramatically.
American producers were able to meet this demand largely because of tile invention of the cotton gin by Eli
Whitney in 1793. Cotton could be grown throughout the South, but separating the fiber – or lint – from the
seed was a laborious process. Sea island cotton was relatively easy to process by hand, because its fibers were
long and seeds were concentrated at the base of the flower, but it demanded a long growing season, available
only along the nation's eastern seacoast. Short-staple cotton required a much shorter growing season, but the
shortness of the fibers and their mixture with seeds meant that a worker could
hand-process only about one pound per day. Whitney's gin was a hand-powered machine with revolving drums
and metal teeth to pull cotton fibers away from seeds. Using the gin, a worker could produce up to 50 pounds
of lint a day. The later development of larger gins, powered by horses, water, or steam, multiplied productivity
further.

The interaction of improved processing and high demand led to the rapid spread of the cultivation of
cotton and to a surge in production. It became the main American export, dwarfing all others. In 1802, cotton
composed 14 percent of total American exports by value. Cotton had a 36 percent share by 1810 and over a 50
percent share
in 1830. In 1860, 61 percent of the value of American exports was represented by cotton. In contrast, wheat
and wheat flour composed only 6 percent of the value of American exports in that year. Clearly, cotton was
king in the trade of the young republic. The growing market for cotton and other American agricultural
products led to an unprecedented expansion of agricultural settlement, mostly in the eastern half of the United
States---west of the Appalachian Mountains and east of the Mississippi River.
55. The main point of the passage is that the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries were a time when
A. the European textile industry increased its demand for American export products
B. mechanization of spinning and weaving dramatically changed the textile industry
C. cotton became a profitable crop but was still time-consuming to process
D. cotton became the most important American export product
56. The word "favored" in line 2 is closest in meaning to


A. preferred

B. recommended

C. imported

D. included

57. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as reasons for the increased demand for cotton EXCEPT
A. cotton's softness

B. cotton's ease of processing


C. a shortage of flax and wool

D. the growth that occurred in the textile industry.

58. The word "laborious" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. unfamiliar

B. primitive

C. skilled

D. difficult

59. According to the passage, one advantage of sea island cotton was its
A. abundance of seeds

B. long fibers

C. long growing season

D. adaptability to different climates

60. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about cotton production in the United States after
the introduction of Whitney's cotton gin?
A. More cotton came from sea island cotton plants than before.
B. More cotton came from short-staple cotton plants than before.
C. Most cotton produced was sold domestically.
D. Most cotton produced was exported to England.
61. The word "surge" in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. sharp increase


B. sudden stop

C. important change

D. excess amount

62. The author mentions "wheat and wheat flour" in line 17 in order to
A. show that Americans exported more agricultural products than they imported.
B. show the increase in the amount of wheat products exported.
C. demonstrate the importance of cotton among American export products.
D. demonstrate that wheat farming was becoming more profitable.
63. The word "unprecedented" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. slow

B. profitable

C. not seen before

D. never explained

64. According to the passage, the Mississippi River was
A. one of the boundaries of a region where new agricultural settlement took place
B. a major source of water for agricultural crops
C. the primary route by which agricultural crops were transported
D. a main source of power for most agricultural machinery
SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the sentence below in such that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
1. The car costs too much. I can’t afford it.
=> If the_______________________________________________________.



2. “Why don’t we go out and have a drink?” said David
=> David suggested_______________________________________________.
3. People say that many species of animals and plants are in danger of extinction.
=> It ___________________________________________________________.
4. He has been working very hard for years. However, he has not been promoted.
=> No matter ____________________________________________________.
5. It is not worth trying to explain anything to Johnny.
=> It is a waste___________________________________________________.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about what kind of job you would like to do after you finish
your education?
The cues below may be useful to your writing:
-

Name of the job

-

Reasons that make you like the job
+ benefits of the job
+ opportunities in the job.


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ANSWER KEYS
1-B

17-C


33-D

49-A

2-C

18-D

34-D

50-A

3-D

19-A

35-D

51-D

4-A

20-C

36-B

52-D

5-B


21-B

37-B

53-B

6-A

22-D

38-D

54-C

7-C

23-A

39-A

55-A

8-D

24-A

40-B

56-A


9-B

25-C

41-A

57-C

10-C

26-D

42-C

58-D

11-D

27-D

43-D

59-B

12-A

28-A

44-A


60-D

13-C

29-B

45-B

61-A

14-D

30-D

46-C

62-C

15-A

31-B

47-D

63-C

16-B

32-D


48-C

64-A

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (2Đ)
I. Viết lại câu: (0.5 đ)
1. => If the car didn’t cost too much/ cost less, I could/ would be able to manage it.
2. => David suggested going out and having a drink.
3. => It is said that many species of animals and plants are in danger of extinction.
4. => No matter how hard he has been working for years, he has not been promoted.
5. => It is a waste of time to try to/ and explain anything to Johnny.
II. Viết theo topic: (1.5 đ)
- Ideas
- coherence
- Length
- unity
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- correct grammar

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ TĨNH

KỲ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA

TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ CHÍNH THẮNG


Môn Tiếng Anh - Năm học 2015 – 2016
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Mã đề thi 223

thi.......................................................................
có 06 trang)
Họ, tên thí (Đề
sinh:
Số báo danh: ............................................................................
SECTION A (8 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. lean

B. teammate

C. beacon

D. overhead

Question 2: A. booked

B. missed

C. described

D. pronounced


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question.
Question 3: A. capture

B. ensure

C. pleasure

D. picture

Question 4: A. particular B. circumstances C. advertisement D. environment
Question 5: A. psychiatry

B. inexpensive

C. patriotic

D. scientific

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Halloween night.
A

B

C

D


Question 7: We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on
A

B

C

D

it on our test tomorrow.
Question 8: Professor Jones said that a good way to improve your language are learning to practise
A

B

C

D

it.
Question 9: Helen likes to listen to music, to go to the cinema, to chat on the phone and going
A

B

C

D


shopping.
Question 10: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010-WorldA

B

C

Cup matches so annoyed.

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D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: People _________can speak English can be understood in many countries.
A. whose

B. who

C. whom

D. which

Question 12: If she ________ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. wasn’t

B. hadn’t been


C. hasn’t been

D. weren’t

Question 13: ________you do better work than this, you won't pass the exam
A. If

B. Although

C. When

D. Unless

Question 14: Nam’s score on the test is the highest in the class; he _________ hard last night.
A. should have studied

B. may have to study

C. must have studied

D. could have studied

Question 15: The government travel health advisory body recommends that pregnant women should
“consider _________ travel” to areas where Zika outbreaks are currently reported.
A. to avoid

B. avoiding

C. being avoided


D. avoid

Question 16: I’d prefer to do it _________ myself, because other people make me nervous.
A. on

B. in

C. by

D. at

Question 17: After John _________ a rough outline of the model, he will begin painting.
A. had drawn

B. has drawn

C. has been drawn

D. is drawing.

Question 18: To our surprise, the so-called cheap shop was ________ was expected.
A. as twice as expensive

B. expensive as twice as

C. twice as expensive as

D. as expensive as twice


Question 19: The picture is _________; the thief will be most disappointed when he tries to sell it
A. invalid

B. priceless

C. worthless

D. unprofitable

Question 20: We regret to tell you that the materials you have ordered are ________
A. out of work

B. out of stock

C. out of order.

D. out of reach

Question 21: Sir Bobby Charton scored so many goals for Manchester United that no players of the club
have ________ him so far.
A. come up with

B. caught up with

C. put up with

D. look up to

Question 22: We bought some __________
A. old lovely German glasses


B. German old lovely glasses

C. German lovely old glasses

D. lovely old German glasses

Question 23: Toxic chemicals in the air and land, contaminated water and increased water temperatures
have also driven many spices to the verge _________ extinction.
A. for

B. in

C. to

D. of

Question 24: If you run _________Nam, give him my best wishes.
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A. over

B. up

C. into

D. to


Question 25: The primary causes of species extinction result _________habitat destruction, commercial
exploitation and pollution.
A. in

B. of

C. for

D. from

Question 26: ________successful 'hydrogen bomb' test when many countries reacted with condemnation
and suspicion
A. Hardly North Korea had claimed

B. Hardly had North Korea claimed

C. No sooner North Korea had claimed

D. No sooner had North Korea claimed

Question 27: People who suffer from lung _________ should not smoke.
A. disease

B. sickness

C. illness

D. ill health


Question 28: Nga: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Nam: “ _________”
A. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.

B. Well, that’s very surprising.

C. Of course not. You bet !

D. There’s no doubt about it

Question 29: “ Happy New Year! “

“_________”

A. Thank you, I am very happy to hear that.
B. Thank you, I am too.
C. Thank you, the same to you.
D. Thank you. I wish you a happy birthday.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these cherry tomato plants.
A. promoted

B. assisted

C. realized

D. prevented

Question 31: I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.

A. respect

B. discourage

C. detest

D. dislike

Question 32: The sale of drugs is controlled by law in most countries.
A. permitted

B. restricted

C. illegal

D. binding

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 42.
TRAFFIC LIGHTS
The first traffic signal was invented by a railway signaling engineer. It was installed (33) ___ the Houses
of Parliament in 1868. It (34)_____ like any railway signal of the time, and was operated by gas. (35)
____, it exploded and killed a policeman, and the accident discouraged further development until cars
became common.
(36) ____ traffic lights are an American invention. Red – green systems were installed in Cleveland in
1914. Three - color signals, operated (37) _____ hand from a tower in the (38) _____ of the street, were
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installed in New York in 1918. The first lights of this type to (39) ____ in Britain were in London, on the
junction between St. James’s Street and Piccadilly, in 1925. Automatic signals were installed (40) ____
year later.
In the past, traffic lights were special. In New York, some lights had a statue on top. In Los Angeles the
lights did not just change silently, but would ring bells to (41) _____ the sleeping motorists of the 1930s.
These are gone and have been (42) ____ by standard models which are universally adopted.
Question 33:

A. outside

B. out

Question 34:

A. resembled

Question 35:

A. However

Question 36:

A. New

Question 37:

A. by

B. with


Question 38:

A. middle

B. heart

Question 39:

A. show

B. appear

Question 40:

A. a

B. in the

Question 41:

A. rise

Question 42:

A. reproduced

C.out of

B. looked

B. Therefore

B. Recent

C. showed
C. Although

C. Modern
C. focus

D. Late

B. replaced

D. in

D. halfway

C. happen
C. wake

D. seemed
D. Despite

C. through

C. in a

B. raise


D. outdoors

D. become
D. the
D. get up

C. removed

D. remained

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 52.
Human Nutrition is the study of how food affects the health and survival of the human body. Human
beings require food to grow, reproduce, and maintain good health. Without food, our bodies could not stay
warm, build or repair tissue, or maintain the heartbeat. Eating the right foods can help us avoid certain
diseases or recover faster when illness occurs. These and other important functions are fueled by chemical
substances in our food called nutrients. Nutrients are classified as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins,
minerals, and water.
When we eat a meal, nutrients are released from food through digestion. Digestion begins in the mouth
by the action of chewing and the chemical activity of saliva, a watery fluid that contains enzymes, certain
proteins that help break down food. Further digestion occurs as food travels through the stomach and the
small intestine, where digestive enzymes and acids liquefy food and muscle contractions push it along the
digestive tract. Nutrients are absorbed from the inside of the small intestine into the bloodstream and
carried to the sites in the body where they are needed. At these sites, several chemical reactions occur,
which ensures the growth and function of body tissues. The parts of foods that are not absorbed continue to
move down the intestinal tract and are eliminated from the body as feces.
Once digested, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats provide the body with the energy it needs to maintain
its many functions. Scientists measure this energy in kilocalories, the amount of energy needed to raise one
kilogram of water one degree Celsius. In nutrition discussions, scientists use the term calorie instead of
kilocalorie as the standard unit of measure in nutrition.

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Nutrients are classified as essential or nonessential. Nonessential nutrients are manufactured in the body
and do not need to be obtained from food. Examples include cholesterol, a fatlike substance present in all
animal cells. Essential nutrients must be obtained from food sources, because the body either does not
produce them or produces them in amounts too small to maintain growth and health. Essential nutrients
include water, carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
An individual needs varying amounts of each essential nutrient, depending upon such factors as gender
and age. Specific health conditions, such as pregnancy, breast-feeding, illness, or drug use, make unusual
demands on the body and increase its need for nutrients. Dietary guidelines, which take many of these
factors into account, provide general guidance in meeting daily nutritional needs.
From “Human Nutrition” by Worthington-Roberts, Bonnie, Microsoft ® Student 2009.
Question 43: The first paragraph mainly discusses ______.
A. chemical substances in our food
B. a variety of essential nutrients to human beings
C. the importance of food to human beings
D. the study of human nutrition
Question 44: The word “released” in the second paragraph mostly means “
A. refused

B. produced

C. expressed

”

D. renewed


Question 45: Which of the following is NOT true about the process of digestion
A. The small intestine covers the whole digestive system.
B. The small intestine helps the body absorb nutrients.
C. Nutrients are carried to different sites in the body
D. Saliva plays an important role in the first stage of digestion
Question 46: The word “maintain” in the paragraph is closest meaning to “
A. obtain

B. provide

”

C. keep performing D. carry on making

Question 47: According to the passage, nutrients are absorbed ______.
A. over the whole body
C. in the stomach

B. in the mouth
D. in the small intestine

Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following provides energy for the body?
A. Proteins, fats, and minerals
B. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
C. Carbohydrates, minerals, and water
D. Proteins, vitamins, and carbohydrates
Question 49: In nutrition discussions, the standard unit used to measure nutrients is ________.
A. kilocalorie


B. kilogram

C. calorie

D. gram

Question 50: The word “which” in the last paragraph refers to______.
A. general guidance

B. unusual demands

C. dietary guidelines D. nutritional needs
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Question 51: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Classification of nutrients
B. The body’s need of nutrients
C. The effects of food on the body
D. Food sources from animals
Question 52: Through the passage, the author provides the readers with _______.
A. instructions

B. some information

C. some proposal

D. orders


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 53: She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity
organization.
A. mean

B. kind

C. hospitable

D. amicable

Question 54: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released.
A. guilty

B. naive

C. benevolent

D. innovative

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural
environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature's provision is the oldest
known subsistence strategy and has been practised for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the
only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced
about 10,000 years ago.
Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their

numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and
arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant
life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and
waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has
provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have
restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.
Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the
observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and
gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party
harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area has become
exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns
evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns
of behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.

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Question 55: A typical feature of both modern and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that ____________.
A. they don't have a healthy and balanced diet

B. they live in the forests for all their life

C. they don't have a strong sense of community D. they often change their living places
Question 56: The word "marginal" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. suburban B. disadvantaged

C. forgotten


D. abandoned

Question 57: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a
_________.
A. deeper insight into the dry-land farming

B.further understanding of modern subsistence

societies
C. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments D. further understanding of prehistoric times
Question 58: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ____________.
A. agricultural products

B. nature's provision

C. farming methods D. hunter-gatherers' tools

Question 59: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share
___________.
A. only the way of duty division
C. some methods of production

B. some restricted daily rules
D. some patterns of behavior

Question 60: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move

B. Evolution of Humans' Farming Methods


C. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies

D. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming

Question 61: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter- gatherers ____________.
A. have better food gathering from nature
C. harvest shorter seasonal crops

B. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing
D. can free themselves from hunting

Question 62: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
B. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.
D. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.
Question 63: The word "conditions" in the second paragraph refers to ____________.
A. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat
B. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found
C. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow
D. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops
Question 64: The word "domestication" in the first paragraph mostly means ____________.
A. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
B. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
C. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
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D. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.
Paper _____________________________________________________________
Question 2: “You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to him
The teacher accused _________________________________________________
Question 3: It was such a boring film that we left before the end.
The film __________________________________________________________
Question 4: Jenny finds it very much relaxing to listen to this wonderful type of music.
It’s very much _____________________________________________________
Question 5: I'd never seen such a gigantic fish before!
Never ____________________________________________________________
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of the Internet. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet.
The following prompts might be helpful to you.
- A source of information
- A source of entertainment
- A mean of education

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Năm học 2015 - 2016
SECTION A (8 points)
Câu

Question 1
Question 2
Question 3
Question 4
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
Question 8
Question 9
Question 10
Question 11
Question 12
Question 13
Question 14
Question 15
Question 16
Question 17
Question 18
Question 19
Question 20
Question 21
Question 22
Question 23
Question 24
Question 25
Question 26
Question 27
Question 28
Question 29
Question 30

Question 31
Question 32
Question 33
Question 34
Question 35
Question 36
Question 37
Question 38
Question 39
Question 40
Question 41
Question 42
Question 43
Question 44
Question 45
Question 46

Mã đề 223
D
C
B
B
A
B
A
C
D
D
B
B

D
C
B
C
B
C
C
B
B
D
D
C
D
B
C
D
C
D
A
B
A
B
A
C
A
A
B
A
C
B

C
B
A
C

Mã đề 224
B
B
D
C
B
C
B
C
C
B
B
D
D
C
D
B
C
D
C
D
A
B
A
B

A
C
A
A
B
A
C
B
C
B
A
C
D
B
C
C
D
B
A
A
A
B

Mã đề 232
A
B
D
B
D
C

A
A
C
A
A
A
D
C
B
B
D
C
B
C
B
C
C
B
B
D
D
C
D
B
C
D
C
D
A
B

A
B
A
C
A
A
B
A
C
B

Mã đề 242
A
B
A
C
A
A
B
A
C
B
C
B
A
C
D
B
C
C

D
B
A
A
A
B
D
B
D
C
A
A
C
A
D
C
B
B
A
B
A
C
D
D
B
B
D
C
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Question 47
Question 48
Question 49
Question 50
Question 51
Question 52
Question 53
Question 54
Question 55
Question 56
Question 57
Question 58
Question 59
Question 60
Question 61
Question 62
Question 63
Question 64

D
B
C
C
D
B
A
A

D
B
D
B
D
C
A
A
C
A

D
B
D
C
A
A
C
A
D
C
B
B
A
B
A
C
D
D


C
B
A
C
D
B
C
C
D
B
B
A
C
D
D
B
B
A

B
C
B
C
C
B
B
D
D
C
D

B
C
D
C
D
A
B

SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet - (0.5 points – each correct answer: 0.1 point).
Question 1: Paper is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
Question 2: The teacher accused him of not paying attention to what he had said
Question 3: The film was so boring that we left before the end
Question 4: It’s very much relaxing for Jenny to listen to this wonderful type of music
Question 5: Never had I seen such a gigantic fish before
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of the Internet. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet - (1.5 points)
Marking scheme:
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HÀ TĨNH

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC
Môn: TIẾNG ANH


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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh:....................................................................

Mã đề thi

247
Số báo danh:.................................

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. He tries to _______ himself with everyone by paying them compliments.
A. gratify

B. please

C. ingratiate

D. commend

Question 2. As he made no ______ to our quarrel, I assumed he had forgiven me.

A. statement

B. mention

C. reference

D. comment

Question 3. It was found that he lacked the ________ to pursue a difficult task to the very end.
A. persuasion

B. commitment

C. engagement

D. obligation

Question 4. The newspaper did not mention the ______ of the damage caused by the fire.
A. range

B. extent

C. amount

D. quality

Question 5. Frankly, I'd rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don't do

B. hadn't done


C. didn't do

D. haven't done

Question 6. Since they aren't answering their telephone, they _____
A. must have left B. should have left

C. need have left D. can have left

Question 7. He can not ________ ignorance as his excuse; he should have known what was happening in
his own department.
A. insist

B. plead

C. refer

D. defend

Question 8. I was angry when you saw me because I ______ with my sister.
A. have been arguing B. had been arguing C. argued

D. would argue

Question 9. Luckily, I _______ a new pair of sunglasses as I found mine at the bottom of a bag.
A. needn't have bought

B. needed not to buy


C. didn't need to by D. hadn't to buy

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Question 10. The book would have been perfect ________ the ending.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for C. it hadn't been for D . hadn't it been for.
Question 11. I'm __________ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious

B. nothing near as ambitious as

C. nothing as ambitious than

D. nowhere near as ambitious as

Question 12. _________ I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the
moment.
A. Even

B. Despite

C. Much as

D. Try as

Question 13. Hardly ________ of the paintings at the gallery were for sale
A. none


B. few

C. some

D. any

Question 14. Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the ________ that the matter was confidential.
A. reasons

B. excuses

C. grounds

D. foundation

Question 15. William is an authority _______ medieval tapestries.
A. on

B. with

C. about

D. in

Question 16. They attempted to __________ the painting to its original condition.
A. restore

B. renovate


C. repair

D. refurbish

Question 17. Jane's very modest, always ________ her success.
A. playing down B. turning around

C. keeping down D. pushing back

Question 18. I feel _________ to inform the committee that a number of members are very unhappy with
the decision.
A. my duty

B. it my duty

C. this my duty

D. that my duty

Question 19. I'm sure when you've stopped looking for your keys, they'll _____ up somewhere.
A. take

B. look

C. turn

D. pull

Question 20. It's very easy to _______ over when the snow is hard.
A. slide


B. skid

C. skate

D. slip

Question 21. All things_________, he is the best president we are likely to get.
A. considered

B. thought

C. taken

D. added

Question 22. Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been _______

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A. broken into

B. taken out

C. touched up

D. tampered with


Question 23 Harry:" _______"
Kate: "Yes. I'd like to buy a computer."
A. Do you look for something?

B. Good morning. Can I help you?

C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it?

D. Can you help me buy something?

Question 24. Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.”
Kate: “Uh, really? __________!”
A. Take care of yourself

B. Congratulations

C. You are always lucky

D. Lucky as you are

Question 25. Tom:" Would you take this along to the office for me?"
Jerry:"_________"
A. Never mind

B. Yes, with pleasure C. Yes, that's right

D. Not at all

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the

underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 26. The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof
disease.
A. disabling

B. vexatious

C. dangerous

D. irreparable

Question 27. In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. superior

B. mandatory

C. beneficial

D. constructive

Question 28. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. irrefutable

B. imminent

C. formidable

D. absolute

Question 29. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies.

A. unique

B. novel

C. exotic

D. vital

Question 30. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely

B. relevantly

C. almost

D. comparatively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

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Question 31. A. Familiar

B. Impatient

C. Uncertain


D. Arrogant

Question 32. A. Forgettable

B. Philosophy

C. Humanism

Question 33. A. Disappear

B. Arrangement

C. Opponent

Question 34. A. Respectable

B. Affectionate

C. Occasional

Question 35. A. Environmental

B. Conservatively

D. Objectively
D. Contractual
D. Kindergarten

C. Approximately


D. Considerable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 36. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.
A

B

C

D

Question 37. Full time jobs for men are declining, while more women are finding part-time or full-time
work.
A

B

The result is declining social status for men so they lose their role as the sole finance provider.
C

D

Question 38. In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what
A

B

C


he won a Newberry Caldecot award.
D
Question 39. Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.
A

B

C

D

Question 40. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been
A

B

C

forced to alter their eating habits.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 41. Considering that we travelled right across the country, the bus ticket was surprisingly
reasonable.
A. Because we were able to move right through the country, the price of the bus ticket didn't bother us.

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B. The ticket for the bus, which took us from one side of the country to the other, was the cheapest that
we could find.
C. The most reasonable way to go right across the country was by bus, so we bought ourselves a ticket.
D. As the bus brought us right across the country, we found the price of the ticket to be cheaper than its
value to us.
Question 42. When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him because I could hear the
noise of a party in the background.
A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background and I told
him that when he telephoned.
B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was saying properly
because of my unbelievably noisy party.
C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't believe his
claim that he was studying.
D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the background there
were party-like sounds.

Question 43. I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
Question 44. They were exposed to biased information, so they didn't know the true story.
A. If they got unbiased information, they could know the true story.
B. If they had unbiased the information, they could have known the true story.
C. If they had been exposed to unbiased information, they would have known the true story.
D. If they have exposed to the unbiased information, they could have seen the true story.
Question 45. It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the
office.

A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the
office.
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B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I
would have had to travel all the way back to the office.
C. I didn't turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd
arrived home.
D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office;
then it would have been easier to go and set it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best forms from the
given words.
Question 46. They/ leave/ early/ not catch/ traffic.
A. They left early so that not to catch in the traffic.
B. They left early to avoid being caught in the traffic.
C. They left early so as to not get caught in the traffic.
D. They left early in order to not get caught in the traffic.
Question 47. It/ not easy/ remain/ tranquil/ events/ suddenly/ change/ life.
A. It is not easy remain tranquil when events suddenly change life.
B. It is not easy to remain tranquil when events suddenly change your life.
C. It is not easy remaining tranquil when events suddenly change your life.
D. It is not easy to remain tranquil if events suddenly change life.
Question 48. You/ should/ doctor/ see/ that cut.
A. You should have a doctor seen to that cut.
B. You should get a doctor seen to that cut.
C. You should have a doctor see to that cut.
D. You should ask a doctor see to that cut.

Question 49. She/ urge/ her husband/ accept/ post.
A. She urged that her husband accept the post.
B. She urged her husband accept the post.
C. She urged her husband accepted the post.
D. She urged her husband should be accepted the post.

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