SỞ GD – ĐT
HĐBM TIẾNG ANH THPT

THI MẪU - KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

Đơn vị: THPT Mỹ Quý
Đề thi cấu trúc 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. universal
B. reserve
C. supply
D. sensitive
Question 2: A. enough
B. cough
C. thorough
D. tough
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the rest in the position of the main stress in the following question.
Question 3: A. impatient
B. initial
C. innocent
D. abnormal
Question 4: A. future
B. involve
C. prospect
D. guidance
Question 5: A. recommend
B. volunteer

C. understand
D. potential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions
Question 6: Can you keep calm for a moment? You ______ noise in class!
A. are always made
B. always make
C. have always made
D. are always making
Question 7: She asked me ______ I was looking at.
A. when
B. if
C. what
D. why
Question 8: College students are becoming less dependent
their teachers.
A. on
B. with
C. of
D. to
Question 9: That cannot be a true story. He ________ it up.
A. can have made
B. must have made
C. would have made
D. should have made
Question 10: Shy people often find it difficult to ________ group discussions.
A. take place in B. take part in
C. get on with
D. get in touch with
Question 11: If it had not rained last night, the roads in the city ______ so slippery now.

A. would not be
B. must not be
C. could not have been
D. would not have been
Question 12: Rose suggested _________ a suit and tie when he went for the interview.
A. him to wear
B. he wear
C. he must wear
D. that he wears
Question 13: In no circumstances ___________ on campus.
A. smoking should be allowed
B. we should allow smoking
C. should smoking be allowed
D. should allow smoking
Question 14: ______ has been a topic of continual geological research.
A. The continents formed
B. If the continents formed
C. How did the continents form
D. How the continents were formed
1


Question 15: Bill managed to get to the train station himself
______ his leg was broken.
A. because
B. because of
C. in spite of
D. although
Question 16: _________ , the less polluted the environment will be.
A. The more polluted landfills will be B. The more landfills are there

C. The less landfills are polluted
D. The fewer landfills we have
Question 17: You should have _____ your composition carefully before you handed it in.
A. seen through B. thought of
C. looked in
D. gone over
Question 18: He always ______ the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.
A. writes
B. makes
C. works
D. does
Question 19: The boy waved his hands to his mother, who was standing at the school gate, to
____ her attention.
A. attract
B. pull
C. follow
D. tempt
Question 20: Scientists have ______ a lot of research into renewable energy sources.
A. solved
B. done
C. made
D. carried
Question 21: He is a typical
_, always looking on the bright side of everything.
A. pessimist
B. introvert
C. extrovert
D. optimist
Question 22: In the modern world, women's ______ roles have been changing.
A. natured

B. naturally
C. nature
D. natural
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Being listed as an endangered species can have negative effect since it could
make a species more desirable for collectors and poachers.
A. awareness
B. preservation
C. support
D. impact
Question 24: Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent
action is taken.
A. vanishing
B. damaging
C. polluting
D. destroying
Question 25: Not all women can do two jobs well at the same time: rearing children and
working at office.
A. educating
B. taking care of C. homemaking D. giving a birth
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 26: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she
went abroad to study.
A. made room for B. lost control of C. put in charge of D. got in touch with
Question 27: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through
environmental improvements.
A. something to suffer
B. something enjoyable

C. something sad
D. something to entertain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 28: - “Do you mind if I use your phone?”
- “____________.”
A. Sorry. I have no idea
B. Not at all. Help yourself
C. Yes, certainly
D. You can say that again
2


Question 29: - Tom: “ I read somewhere recently that about 137 species of animals and
plants become extinct everyday.”
_ Mary: “_______________”
A. Well, maybe all is not lost yet.
B. What’s point
C. What a pity
D. It can’t have happened like that
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 30: It is the writing English that causes difficulties to foreigners.
A
B
C
D
Question 31: The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel.
A
B

C
D
Question 32: Not until recent has interest in synthetic fuels been revived.
A
B
C
D
Question 33: Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade in the
history of
A
B
C
weather records.
D
Question 34: The nests of most bird species are strategic placed to camouflage them against
predators.
A
B
C
D
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things,
the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water
are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at
frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their
entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not aliminated life but only those forms unable to
withstand its desiccating effects. No moist skinned, water-loving animals can exist there.
Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the

coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and
leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with
reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in
the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology.
None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun;
many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in
cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of
the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is
only 60 degrees.
Question 35: The title for this passage could be
.
A. “Desert Plants”
B. “Life Underground”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”
3


D. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
Question 36: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means
.
A. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own”
B. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants”
C. “very smal living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants”
D. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and
plants”
Question 37: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert,
as ________
A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
B. water is an essential part of his existence

C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
D. very few lagre animals are found in the desert
Question 38: The pharse “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT
A. water-loving animals
B. the coyote and the bobcat
C. moist-skinned animals
D. many large animals
Question 39: According to the passage, creatures in the desert
.
A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest
B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest
C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 40: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert
animals EXCEPT
.
A. they sleep during the day
B. they dig home underground
C. they are noisy and aggressive
D. they are watchfull and quiet
Question 41: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means
.
A. “living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm”
B. “able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating”
C. “large and strong, difficult to control or deal with”
D. “thin and weak because of lack of food and water”
Question 42: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is
that ____________
A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places

C. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees
D. they live in an accommodating environment
Question 43: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means
.
A. “places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young”
B. “holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in”
C. “structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept”
D. “places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found”
Question 44: We can infer from the passage that
.
A. living things adjust to their environment
B. water is the basis of desert life
4


C. desert life is colorful and diverse
D. healthy animals live longer lives
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was
desperately (liều khẩn) in need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich.
There were very few public schools because of the strong sentiment (tình cảm) that children
who would grow up to be laborers should not “waste” their time on education but should
instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this public sentiment
that educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of
the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As
Superintendent (quản lí) of Education in the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he
initiated various changes, which were soon matched in other school districts around the
country. He extended the school year from five to six months and improved the quality of
teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher salaries. Although these changes

did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased
public awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.
Question 45. The best title for the passage could be ______.
A. A Flight for Change
B. American Education in the Beginning of the 19th Century
C. Nineteenth - the Century of Reform
D. The Beginnings of Reform in American Education
Question 46. The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed ______.
A. a high level of intelligence
B. a strong educational background
C. a lot of money
D. good grades
Question 47. The word “desperately” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. partly
B. urgently
C. completely
D. obviously
Question 48. The author of the passage puts the word “waste” in quotation marks because he
____.
A. does not want students to waste their time on education
B. is quoting someone else who said that education was a waste of time
C. wants to emphasize how much time is wasted on education
D. thinks that education is not really a waste of time
Question 49. According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for
Americans because___.
A. education at the time was so cheap
B. people had nothing else to do except go to school
C. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time
D. all citizens should be educated in a republic
Question 50. The word “reformers” in the passage mostly means ______.

A. people who work for the government
B. people who really enjoy teaching
C. people who try to change things for the better
D. people who believe that education is wasted
5


Question 51. The word “citizen” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. a person who lives in a particular city
B. a person who works in a particular place
C. a person who has the legal right to belong to a particular country
D. a person who works, especially one who does a particular kind of work
Question 52. From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann ______.
A. worked as a headmaster in a school in the state of Massachusetts
B. raised money for the educational development in Massachusetts
C. funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans
D. managed education in the state of Massachusetts
Question 53. According to the passage, which sentence is NOT TRUE?
A. Horace Mann began raising teachers’ salaries.
B. Horace Mann suggested schools prepare children for their life’s work.
C. Horace Mann brought about changes in many schools in the United States.
D. Horace Mann was a famous US educational reformer.
Question 54. According to the passage, which of the following is a change that Horace Mann
instituted?
A. The five-month school year.
B. Better teacher training.
C. Increased pay for students.
D. The matching of other districts’ policies.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Some people believe that soon schools will no longer be necessary. They say that (55)____
the Internet and other new technologies, (56)_____ no longer any need for school
buildings, formal classes, or teachers. Perhaps this will be true one day, but this is hard to (57)
____a world without schools. In fact, we need to look at how we can use new
technology to make schools better, not (58) _______them. We should invent a new kind of
school that is (59)_____ to libraries, museums, science centers, laboratories, and even
companies. (60)________
could give talks on video or over the Internet. TV
networks and local stations could develop programming about things students are
(61)________ studying in school.
Already there are several towns (62) ________ this is beginning to happen. Blacksburg,
Virginia, is one of them. Here the entire city is linked to the Internet, and learning can (63)
at home, at school and in the office. Businesses provide programs for the schools and
the schools provide computer labs for people without their own (64) _______
at home.
Question
Question
Question
Question
Question
Question
Question
6

55: A. because
56: A. it is
57: A. realise
58: A. eliminator
59: A. linked
60: A. Policemen

61: A. rarely

B. though
B. they are
B. imagine
B. eliminative
B. addressed
B. Orators
B. actually

C. despite
C. there are
C. know
C. elimination
C. contributed
C. Businessmen
C. intentionally

D. because of
D. there is
D. consider
D. to eliminate
D. limited
D. Experts
D. publicly


Question 62: A. that
Question 63: A. take in
Question 64: A. equipment


B. where
B. take part in
B. computers

C. which
C. take place
C. jobs

D. when
D. take time
D. documents

WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Question 65: No students in my class can speak English as fluently as Lam does.
→ Lam ________________________________________________
Question 66: As soon as Alice registered for the course, she received the scholarship.
→ No sooner ___________________________________________
Question 67: “You’re always making terrible mistakes,” said the teacher.
→ The teacher complained ________________________________
Question 68: You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.
→ Unless ______________________________________________
Question 69: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake. (not … enough)
→ ____________________________________________________
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about your family rules
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Người soạn: Dương Thị Thanh Hà
7


ĐÁP ÁN
1. B
8. A
15. D
22. D
29. A
36. B
43. B
50. C
57. B
64. B

2. C
9. B
16. D
23. D
30. A

37. B
44. A
51. C
58. D

3. C
10. B
17. D
24. A
31. D
38. D
45. D
52. D
59. D

4. B
11. A
18. D
25. B
32. B
39. A
46. C
53. B
60. A

5. D
12. B
19. A
26. D
33. A

40. C
47. B
54. B
61. B

6. D
13. C
20. B
27. B
34. C
41. D
48. D
55. D
62. C

7. C
14. D
21. D
28. B
35. C
42. A
49. D
56. C
63. D

65. Lam can speak English the most fluently of all students in my class.
66. No sooner had Alice registered for the course than she received the scholarship.
67. The teacher complained about his/her students making terrible mistakes.
68. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
69. The coffee was not strong enough for us to keep away.


8


ĐỀ THI MẪU TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
ĐƠN VỊ: THPT TAM NÔNG
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. technical
B. scholar
C. architect
D. achieve
Question 2: A. accused
B. followed
C. weighed
D. laughed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in the following question.
Question 3: A. opinion
B. believable
C. interesting
Question 4: A. subject
B. retail
C. attend
D. pressure
Question 5: A. interview
B. supportive
C. graduate
D. average
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the

following questions
Question 6: When Carol _______ last night, I _______ my favorite show on television
A. was calling- watched
B. called- have watched
C. called- was watching
D. had called- watched
Question 7: Endangered species _______ by the World Wildlife Fund.
A. will protect
B. would protect
C. be protected
D. are protected
Question 8: I’ll get Minh _______ do this for you.
A. do
B. done
C. did
D. to do
Question 9: The voters were overwhelmingly against the candidate _______ proposals called for
higher taxes.
A. who his
B. who he had
C. whose
D. that his
Question 10: It is a top secret. You _______ tell anyone about it.
A. mustn’t
B. needn’t
C. mightn’t
D. need
Question 11: He said that he _______ the Titanic yet.
A. hasn’t seen
B. hadn’t seen

C. didn’t see
D. doesn’t see
Question 12: If it _______ an hour ago, the streets _______ wet now.
A. were raining / will be
B. had rained / would be
C. rained / would be
D. had rained / would have been
Question 13: "When _______?" - "In 1928."
A. penicillin was invented
B. did penicillin invented
C. was penicillin invented
D. did penicillin invent
Question 14: This exercise may ______ with a pencil.
A. be written
B. be to write
C. be writing
D. write
Question 15: He usually travels to _______ Philadelphia by _______ train.
A. Ø / Ø
B. the / a
C. the / the
D. Ø / a
Question 16: This is the first time I attend such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. The first wedding party I attended was enjoyable.


B. I had the first enjoyable wedding party.
C. My attendance at the first wedding party was enjoyable.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
Question 17: _______ he drank, _______ he became.

A. More / more violent
B. The most / the most violent
C. The more / the more violent
D. The less / less violent
Question 18: _______ this work _______ before you went to London?
A. Will - have been done
B. Has - been done
C. Will - be done
D. Had - been done
Question 19: Please send us a postcard as soon as you _______ in London.
A. will arrive
B. is going to arrive
C. arrive
D. arrived
Question 20: Books with good stories are often described as _______.
A. swallowing
B. tasting
C. hard-to-put-down
D. hard-to-pick-up
Question 21: The number of _______ for the new position has reached ninety.
A. application
B. applicants
C. apply
D. appliance
Question 22: Ann/ told/ me/ not /tell/ anyone /what/ happened/ night before.
A. Ann said to me please don't tell anyone what happened night before.
B. Ann told to me didn't tell anyone what had happened night before.
C. Ann said me not to tell anyone what happened the night before.
D. Ann told me not to tell anyone what had happened the night before.
Question 23: Of course you can come to the party. _______.

A. The more the merrier
B. The more and the merrier
C. The more and merrier
D. The more and more merrier
Question 24: Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the
_______ of extinction.
A. wall
B. fence
C. verge
D. bridge
Question 25: At his last attempt, the athlete was successful _______ passing the bar.
A. in
B. for
C. with
D. on
Question 26: You can look up this word in the dictionary.
A. You should buy this dictionary to find the word you need.
B. There are a lot of words in the dictionary for you to look at.
C. The dictionary contains a lot of words except the one you need.
D. You can find the meaning of this word in the dictionary.
Question 27: A nuclear station may take risk going off due to unexpected incidents.
A. exploding
B. demolishing
C. developing
D. running


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 28: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took

place.
A. organized
B. impressed
C. participated
D. defended
Question 29: I find it difficult to remain neutral where he’s concerned.
A. objective
B. negative
C. positive
D. middle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 30: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures.
A. serve
B. beneficial
C. physical
D. damaging
Question 31: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. different
B. genuine
C. fake
D. similar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 32: Lili: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - Mary: “_______.”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid
B. You are telling a lie
C. Thank you for your compliment
D. I don't like your sayings

Question 33: - Mary: “_______?”
- Alice: She is honest and sensitive .
A. What is the main character look like?
B. What is the main character like?
C. Who is the main character?
D. Do you like the main character?
Question 34: - Anna: “I think women are usually more sympathetic than men.”
- Jack: “_______.”
A. No, thanks
B. That’s right!
C. You’re welcome D. Yes, let’s
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 35: In order to be a good worker, you should be hard-working, patient and honesty.
A
B
C
D
Question 36: The larger the room is, more people can sit in it.
A
B
C
D
Question 37: John remembers to go to the circus when he was a child.
A
B
C
D
Question 38: Some underground water is enough safe to drink, but all surface water must be treated.
A

B
C
D
Question 39: It took me a very long time to get off the shock of her death.
A
B
C
D


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
If women choose to pursue a career once they have children, they often miss out on a close (40)
_______ with their children. Helen Jamieson is a mother of three who has given (41) _______ work to
look after her children full-time. She strongly believes that women are pressurized to do too much,
driving themselves to the absolute limit. In her own case, after six years of paid employment, Helen
finally decided to call it a day. She says she initially found it hard being at home, though she never
misses the job itself. She admits that if she had had a brilliant career to begin (42) _______, she might
feel differently now. Financially, she is no worse off (43) _______ before, as the cost of childcare and
commuting exceeded her actual income. (44) _______ the government starts to give other tax
incentives to working parents, she says she will not return to the workplace until her children are grown
up.
Question 40: A. friendship
B. relationship
C. scholarship
D. membership
Question 41: A. out
B. in
C. to
D. up

Question 42: A. up
B. with
C. to
D. at
Question 43: A. as
B. so
C. than
D. then
Question 44: A. Unless
B. If
C. Provided
D. Even if
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
COLORS AND EMOTIONS
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as
important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and
is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear
either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of
course they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the
color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes
based on the color or emotion I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the
emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are
meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in
motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to
be healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit
your emotions.

Question 45: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To prove the relationship between color and emotion.
B. To show that colors are important for a healthy life.
C. To persuade the reader that colors influence emotions and give a person more energy.
D. To give an objective account of how color affect emotions.
Question 46: The term intimately in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. simply
B. obviously
C. clearly
D. closely


Question 47: The phrase saturated with in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. in need of
B. lacking in
C. covered with
D. bored with
Question 48: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
B. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life.
C. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
D. Colors can help you become more influenced.
Question 49: According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. Ignoring your emotions
B. Exposing yourself to bright color
C. Wearing the color black
D. Being open to your emotions
Question 50: Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills
B. Your friend’s feelings

C. Your appetite
D. Your mood
Question 51: Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. Because they both affect how we feel.
B. Because vibrations make you healthy.
C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
Question 52: Who is more influenced by the color you wear?
A. You are more influenced.
B. The people next to you are more influenced.
C. The people far from you are more influenced
D. The people around you are more influenced.
Question 53: According to this passage, what do color, sound and emotions all have in common?
A. They all affect the cells of the body
B. They are all related to health
C. They are all forms of motions
D. None of the above
Question 54: The term they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. affection
B. people
C. emotions
D. colors
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer.
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals
and tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by
humans on foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of
information between two places. The telegram and telephone set the stage for more modern means of
communication. With the invention of the cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with
family and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text message. The definition of a cell phone is more

specific. It is a hand- held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small
special areas called cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplex communication devices. They make it
possible for two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular
phones because they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a
half-duplex communication device because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a fullduplex device because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel.
A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals


across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles.
In 1973, an electronic company called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless
communication. Motorola and Bell Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable
communication device. Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On
April 3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone call to his opponent at AT&T while walking down the
streets of New York City. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper's phone was
called A Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds (as compared to today's cell phones
that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces)
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone
available to the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phone for commercial
use. The early cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $ 3,500.
In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers.
In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in the Washington D.C. and Baltimore area. It took
nearly 37 years for cell phones to become available for general public use. Today, there are more than
sixty million cell phone customers with cell phones producing over thirty billion dollars per years.
Question 55: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The increasing number of people using cell phone.
B. The difference between cell phones and telephones.
C. The history of a cell phone.
D. How Cooper competed with AT&T.
Question 56: What definition is true of a cell phone?

A. The first product of two famous corporation.
B. A hand-held wireless communication device.
C. Something we use just for playing games.
D. A version of walkie-talkie.
Question 57: What is wrong about a walkie-talkie?
A. It has one channel
B. It was first designed in 1973.
C. It can be used within a distance of a mile. D. Only one person can talk at a time.
Question 58: The word "duplex" is closest meaning to ________.
A. having two parts B. quick
C. modern
D. having defects
Question 59: To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A. His assistant at Motorola.
B. A person on New York street.
C. A member of Bell Laboratories.
D. The director of his company.
Question 60: How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today's cell phones?
A. ten times as heavy as
B. as heavy as
C. much lighter
D. 2 pounds heavier
Question 61: When did Motorola introduce the first cell phones for commercial use?
A. In 1981
B. In the same years when he first made a cell- phone call
C. In 1983
D. In the same year when AT& T constructed a cell phone system.


Question 62: When did AT&T widely start their cellular phone system?

A. In 2001
B. In 1977
C. In 1981
D. 37 years after their first design
Question 63: What does the word "gazed" mean?
A. looked with admiration
B. angrily looked
C. glanced
D. started conversation
Question 64: The phrase "tried it out" refers to _______.
A. made effort to sell the cell-phone
B. reported on AT& T
C. tested the cell-phone system
D. introduced the cell-phone system
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Question 65: I started learning English seven years ago.
 I have …………………………………………………………………………..
Question 66: My mother prepared breakfast for us. Then she went to work.
 After my mother ……………………………………………………………….
Question 67: I didn’t know how to ride a bike until I was seven.
 It was not ………………………………………………………………………
Question 68: I didn’t have enough money, so I didn’t buy that house.
 Had …………………………………………………………………………….
Question 69: “I didn’t break your window,” the boy said.
 The boy denied ………………………………………………………………...
Part II. In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the formal education system in Vietnam.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………


Người soạn:
1. Trần Anh Tuấn
2. Lê Thị Thùy Trang
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2016
ĐƠN VỊ THPT TAM NÔNG
-----PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (0.25/CÂU)
1. D
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. D

9. C
10. A
11. B

12. B
13. C
14. A
15. A
16. D

17. C
18. D
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. C

25. A
26. D
27. A
28. A
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. C

33. B
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. B

39. C
40. B

41. D
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. C
48. A

49. A
50. D
51. D
52. A
53. D
54. D
55. C
56. B

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (0.1/CÂU)
Part I:
Question 65: I have learnt English for seven years.
Question 66: After my mother had prepared breakfast fro us, she went to bed.
Question 67: It was not until I was seven that I knew how to ride a bike.
Question 68: Had I had enough money, I would have bought that house.
Question 69: The boy denied breaking/having broken my window.
Part II:
1. Nội dung:

- Đúng chủ đề: 0.25đ
- Viết logic, hợp lý: 0,25đ
2. Ngôn ngữ:
- Viết đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp: 0,25đ
- Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp và phong phú: 0,25đ
3. Trình bày:
- Viết đủ số từ: 0.25đ
- Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng tạo: 0.25đ
4. Điểm trừ:
- Ngữ pháp: trừ tối đa: 0.125đ
- Chính tả: trừ tối đa: 0.125đ
- Ít hơn số từ qui định: trừ 0.125đ

57. B
58. A
59. D
60. A
61. C
62. C
64. A
64. D


SỞ GD – ĐT HÀ TĨNH
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên:………………………………………….

Mã đề: 185


Số báo danh:……………………………………….
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80) CÓ 06 TRANG

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 10.
English in Europe
Whoever learns English knows that it is an international language or a lingua franca. English has without a
___1___ become the second language of Europe and the world. European countries which have most ____2____
assimilated English into daily life are England's neighbours in Northern Europe: Ireland, the Netherlands, Sweden,
Norway, and the ___3___ of Scandanavia.
The influence of Great Britain and the United States on international relations and political affairs for the
past century has ensured acceptance and proliferation of English as the main language spoken in many countries.
Take the Netherlands for example. The situation is so ______4______ that any visitor to this country will soon be
__5__ of the pressure of English on daily life: television, radio and print ____6____ it into every home and the
schoolyard ____7____of children; advertisers use it to ____8____ up their message, journalists take refuge in it
when their home-bred skills ___9___ them. Increasingly one hears the ____10___ that Dutch will give way to
English as the national tongue within two or three generations ...
Question 1:
Question 2:
Question 3:
Question 4:
Question 5:
Question 6:
Question 7:
Question 8:
Question 9:
Question 10:

A. fail
A. lucrative

A. rest
A. plain
A. ignorant
A. guide
A. conversation
A. life
A. succeed
A. feeling

B. doubt
B. dominant
B. leftovers
B. interesting
B. aware
B. bring
B. head-to-head
B. energy
B. fall
B. posture

C. likelihood
C. successful
C. remaining
C. blatant
C. oblivious
C. shift
C. consultation
C. enthusiasm
C. fail
C. judgement


D. question
D. successfully
D. extra
D. marked
D. acquainted
D. haul
D. dialogue
D. pep
D. fizzle
D. view

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 11: After missing a term through illness, he had to work hard to catch with up the others.
A
B
C
D
Question 12: This is the only place which we can obtain scientific information.
A
B
C
D
Question 13: It was only when Mr Hoan announced the result did he know that he was the winner of the contest.
A
B
C
D
Question 14: The headmaster with over 70 teachers are ready to apply the new teaching methods focusing on

A
B
C
D
learners.
Question 15: One of the worst disease that mankind has ever had is cancer.
A
B
C
D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 16: Teacher shortages hinder new English training programmes carried out in Ho Chi Minh City.
A. facilitate
B. prevent
C. impede
D. obstruct
Question 17: TPOTY is one of the world's most prestigious photography awards, receiving entries from nearly
100 countries annually.
A. distinguished
B. renowned
C. ordinary
D. famed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 18: When he won the first prize, he realised that this was the highest attainment of his life.

A. accomplishment
B. task
C. surprise
D. shock
Question 19: According to scientists, it is possible that another Ice Age will soon be upon us.
A. some day
B. now
C. in the near future
D. undoubtedly
Question 20: The value of an old item increases with time.
A. a facsimile
B. a bonus
C. an antique
D. an original
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 21 to 30.
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million
cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere
each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles
of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams,
springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic
existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid.
One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract on cooling.
For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would
soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic
life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climate, would be
notably absent.
Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all
liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of

heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other
liquid. It is this characteristic that helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed
down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar
evaporation of salt is widely practiced, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from
sea water along the American Gulf Coast.

Question 21: The word "replenish" can best be replaced by
A. replace

B. fill again

.

C. form

D. evaporate

Question 22: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because
A. ice floats

B. they do not need oxygen

C. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle

D. there are currents in the ocean

Question 23: The author's main purpose in this passage is to

.


.

A. explain how water is used in commerce and industry

B. compare water with other liquids

C. describe the properties and uses of water

D. illustrate the importance of conserving water

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Question 24: The phrase "This vast amount" in line 4 refers to

.

A. 300 million cubic miles of water

B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain

C. 80,000 cubic miles of water

D. 80,000 million cubic of water

Question 25: The author's tone in the passage can best be described as
A. dispassionate

B. dogmatic


.

C. biased

D. speculative

Question 26: According to the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT

.

A. responsible for all forms of life

B. that part of the earth covered by water

C. a source of natural resources

D. in danger of freezing water

Question 27: The word "outstanding" is closest in meaning to
A. important

B. amusing

.

C. exceptionally good

D. special

Question 28: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of water?

A. Water expands when it is frozen.

B. Water is a good solvent.

C. Water contracts on cooling.

D. Water can absorb heat.

Question 29: The author organizes the passage by

.

A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas

B. comparison and contrast

C. hypothesis and proof

D. general statements followed by examples

Question 30: Which of the following statements would be most likely to begin the paragraph immediately
following the passage?
A. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength.
B. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes.
C. Water has the ability to erode land.
D. Drought and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 31: “Shall I bring you some food?” he said to me.
A. He advised me to bring some food.

B. He invited me to eat some food.
C. He told me to bring him some food.
D. He offered to bring me some food.
Question 32: People believe that there is another world after Death.
A. It is believed that there is another world after Death.
B. It was believed that there is another world after Death.
C. That there is another world after Death is believed by people.
D. There is believed to have another world after Death.
Question 33: What a pity I failed the writing test !
A. I wish I had passed the writing test.
B. I wish I have passed the writing test.
C. I wish I will pass the writing test.
D. I wish I pass the writing test.
Question 34: Jack has not had his hair cut for over four months.
A. It's over four months since Jack has his hair cut.
B. It's over four months since Jack has had his hair cut.
C. It's over four months since Jack had his hair cut.
D. It's over four months since Jack had had his hair cut.
Question 35: I am always busy but I manage to spend half an hour playing with my son everyday.
A. Although I am always busy, but I manage to spend half an hour playing with my son everyday.
B. I am always busy, therefore, I manage to spend half an hour playing with my son everyday.
C. However I am always busy, I manage to spend half an hour playing with my son everyday.
D. Although I am always busy, I manage to spend half an hour playing with my son everyday.
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Question 36: She is too weak, she can't sit up and talk to you.
A. If she hadn't been too weak, she could sit up and talk to you.
B. If she weren't too weak, she could sit up and talk to you.
C. If she isn't too weak, she can sit up and talk to you.

D. If she wasn't too weak, she can sit up and talk to you.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 37: A. mixed
Question 38: A. walks

B. watched
B. stops

C. laughed
C. roofs

D. wanted
D. plays

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 39: A. agree
Question 40: A. essential
Question 41: A. international

B. invent
B. ability
B. television

C. parent
C. political
C. conversation

D. thirteen

D. entertain
D. disagree

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 42 to 50.
The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes minerals
from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages remineralization and
neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on the amount of plaque on the
teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the plaque have been "primed" by
frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in the
mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling saliva to
neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are forming, some
fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack by acid. Fluoride
toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce your
intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not between. The
number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful acid the bacteria in
your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky
sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even
rinsing your mouth with water is effective. Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks,
apples, celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these
rules are followed when eating sweets.
Question 42: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition
C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy
B. Food with fiber
D. Fluoridization and cavities
Question 43: According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT_______.
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria.

B. It is not affected by eating sweets.
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing.
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva.
Question 44: We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is that __________.
A. It strengthens tooth enamel.
B. It stimulates saliva production.
C. It makes teeth whiter.
D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care.
Question 45: The word "it" in line 7 refers to _________.
A. dental floss
B. bacteria
C. removal of plaque
D. plaque
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Question 46: What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 47: The word "scrape off" in line 17 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. repel
B. rub together with
C. remove
D. dissolve
Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that foods with fiber are _________.
A. sugary
B. expensive
C. sticky

D. abrasive
Question 49: According to the passage, the value of eating foods with fiber is that __________.
A. they contain Vitamin A.
B. they are less expensive than a toothbrush.
C. they are able to remove the plaque from your teeth.
D. they contain no sugar.
Question 50: The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva
increases _________.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat.
B. with the number of times you eat sweets.
C. if you eat sweets with your meals.
D. if you eat sticky sweets.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct sentence that is made from the words
given in each of the following questions.
Question 51: Developing countries/ need / do / research / find / solutions /agriculture problems.
A. Developing countries need doing research to find solutions to agriculture problems.
B. Developing countries need to do researching to find solutions to agriculture problems.
C. Developing countries need to do research to find solutions to agriculture problems.
D. Developing countries need doing research to finding solutions to agriculture problems.
Question 52: The boy / he / his father / homework / home / come / finish / last night.
A. The boy had finished his homework before his father came home last night.
B. His father came home before the boy had finished his homework last night.
C. Before his father had finished his homework, the boy came home last night.
D. Before the boy had come home, his father finished his homework last night.
Question 53: Tam / the novel / he / its ending / read / not remember / three times / however
A. Tam had read the novel three times; however, he can’t remember its ending.
B. Tam can’t remember its ending; however, he had read the novel three times.
C. Tam has read the novel three times; however, he can’t remember its ending.
D. However, Tam reads the novel three times, he can’t remember its ending.
Question 54: There / a number of measures / should / take / protect / endanger species

A. There are a number of measures that should take to protect endanger species.
B. There are a number of measures that should be taken to protect endangered species.
C. There are a number of measures that should be take to protect endangered species.
D. There are a number of measures should take to protect endangered species.
Question 55: Say / English / be / important / be / of / all / most / the / language
A. English says to be most the important of all language.
B. English is said to be the language most important of all.
C. English is said to be the most important language of all.
D. All of the most important language is said to be English.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct sentence in each of the following
questions.
Question 56: He promised to try his best _______hard the work was.
A. however
B. wherever
C. whenever
Question 57: His father often says that it is essential that he _____a practical goal to get.
A. set
B. sets
C. will set
Question 58: The teacher advised him ______ harder.
A. to study
B. study
C. studying
Question 59: I have two sisters, _____ are working in New York.
A. all of them
B. none of them
C. two of whom

D. whatever
D. has set

D. studies
D. both of whom
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Question 60: We would rather Tuyen ________ late for school last Friday.
A. wasn't
B. weren't
C. hadn't been
D. wouldn't have been
Question 61: Ask her ______ to leave.
A. when does she plan
B. when she plans
C. when did she plan
D. when does she plans
Question 62: David_____ in jail now if he had not trafficked with those gangsters in the past.
A. won't have been
B. won't be
C. wouldn't have been
D. wouldn't be
Question 63: The problem was _________ we thought at first.
A. more much serious than B. much more serious than
C. much serious than
D. seriouser than
Question 64: The little girl wouldn't go into the sea ________ her father went, too.
A. except
B. but
C. also
D. unless
Question 65: Whenever something goes wrong, everyone ___________ it on me.

A. charges
B. blames
C. insists
D. accuses
Question 66: - Dung: “Thanks for the nice gift!”
- Chuong: “_______.”
A. You’re welcome.
B. But do you know how much it costs?
C. In fact, I myself don’t like it.
D. I’m glad you like it.
Question 67: A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ______, it will stop burning.
A. Consequently
B. Furthermore
C. Otherwise
D. However
Question 68: Last year Mark earned __________ his brother, who had a better position.
A. twice as much as
B. twice more than
C. twice as many as
D. twice as more as
Question 69: Tom didn’t do his homework, so the teacher became very angry. He _____ his homework.
A. will have done
B. must have done
C. might have done
D. should have done
Question 70: It is a ___________.
A. blue sleeping polyester bag
B. blue polyester sleeping bag
C. polyester sleeping blue bag
D. sleeping blue polyester bag

Question 71: There was a sign, but Charles couldn’t _______ what it said.
A. see off
B. hang on
C. make up
D. make out
Question 72: The man ______ is drinking orange juice is my eldest brother.
A. whom
B. whose
C. who
D. which
Question 73: There isn't any sugar, I'm afraid. You'll have to ______it.
A. run out
B. put up with
C. do without
D. make for.
Question 74:Ho Chi Minh City, _____ the Pearl of the Far East, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is
B. known as
C. is known as
D. that is known as
Question 75: "I'm so sorry I forgot your birthday!" - "________"
A. Oh, not really!
B. It's good of you to say so!
C. My pleasure!
D. Oh, don't worry, there's always next year!
Question 76: A certificate from Ha Noi National University is a valuable ____.
A. examination
B. qualification
C. production
D. paper

Question 77: By the time he ______ for Paris, the contract will have completed.
A. has left
B. will leave
C. left
D. leaves
Question 78: Our village had ____ money available for education that the schools had to close.
A. so little
B. such little
C. so much
D. such much
Question 79: Nobody is ready to go, ________?
A. isn’t he
B. are they
C. is he
D. aren’t they
Question 80: The firework went _______ and lightened the sky with colors.
A. out
B. off
C. on
D. away

THE END

Trang 6/6 - Mã đề 185


SỞ GD – ĐT HÀ TĨNH
TRƯỜNG THPT N.T. MINH KHAI

Câu số


Mã đề thi

Câu số

185

236

351

467

1

B

A

C

D

2

D

B

C


3

A

B

4

D

5

Mã đề thi

Câu số

185

236

351

467

31

D

D


A

D

D

32

A

C

B

B

C

33

A

B

C

C

B


34

C

B

A

D

C

35

6

B

A

C

D

7

A

B


C

8

D

D

9

C

10

Mã đề thi
185

236

351

467

61

B

C


B

A

B

62

D

A

B

D

D

D

63

B

A

A

B


C

D

B

64

D

B

B

A

D

B

C

D

65

B

D


C

D

36

B

D

B

D

66

D

B

D

B

D

37

D


B

D

B

67

C

C

B

D

D

C

38

D

B

C

A


68

A

C

C

C

C

B

A

39

C

C

D

B

69

D


A

B

D

D

C

B

B

40

D

D

C

D

70

B

B


A

D

11

D

B

C

C

41

B

C

B

A

71

D

B


C

C

12

C

D

A

B

42

C

B

B

B

72

C

C


D

A

13

C

B

C

B

43

B

D

B

C

73

C

C


B

B

14

B

A

C

C

44

A

C

B

A

74

B

A


C

A

15

B

A

C

B

45

C

B

B

A

75

D

D


C

B

16

A

D

B

D

46

B

D

B

B

76

B

C


B

B

17

C

B

D

D

47

C

B

D

C

77

D

C


B

C

18

A

D

B

C

48

D

D

C

B

78

A

B


A

C

19

C

B

C

A

49

C

B

B

B

79

B

A


A

B

20

C

C

B

B

50

B

C

C

A

80

B

A


C

D

21

B

C

B

B

51

C

A

A

C

22

A

B


A

A

52

A

B

C

D

23

C

A

C

D

53

C

D


B

C

24

B

C

D

C

54

B

B

A

A

25

A

A


C

B

55

C

B

C

D

26

D

A

A

A

56

A

D


C

B

27

D

C

D

B

57

A

A

B

C

28

C

A


B

D

58

A

C

C

A

29

D

A

B

A

59

D

B


C

B

30

C

D

C

A

60

C

B

A

B


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI MẪU – KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
HỘI ĐỒNG BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH THPT
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Đơn vị: THPT Lấp Vò 1

Đề thi cấu trúc 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. challenge
B. manage
C. natural
D. human
Question 2: A. determine
B. university
C. undermine
D. visitors
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from that of the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. miraculous
B. diversity
C. defensive
D. occupation
Question 4: A. delivery
B. ornamental
C. climatic
D. environment
Question 5: A. magnificent
B. photography
C. proverbial
D. advantageous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Sometimes I do not feel like ________ to my brother about my troubles.
A. talk
B. to talk

C. talking
D. talked
Question 7: Where did you buy that ___________ handbag?
A. funny leather purple
B. purple funny leather
C. funny purple leather
D. leather funny purple
Question 8: As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late for the
rehearsal.
A. unaware
B. unconscious
C. unable
D. unreasonable
Question 9: He said that the plane had already left and that I _______ an hour earlier.
A. should have arrived
B. must have arrived
C. was supposed to arrive
D. had to arrive
Question 10: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ________ what she missed while she was
away.
A. catch up on
B. cut down on
C. put up with
D. take up with
Question 11: World War II ______ millions of people were killed ended in 1945.
A. when
B. in which
C. which
D. during that
Question 12: _______ you should do first is to make a list of all the things you have to do.

A. That
B. What
C. As
D. If
Question 13: _______ the ringing phone when it went dead.
A. Hardly I reached
B. I had no sooner reached
C. Just as I reached
D. Scarcely had I reached
Question 14: He always did well at school ________ having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. on account of
B. in addition to
C. in spite of
D. even though
Question 15: She was ________ she could not say anything.
A. so surprised at the news that
B. such surprised at the news that
C. so surprised of the news that
D. so that surprised for the news


Question 16: The more he tried to explain, _______ we got.
A. the much confused
B. the much confusing
C. the more confusing
D. the more confused
Question 17: If you ________ Peter, could you tell him to ring me up?
A. come into
B. come over
C. come across

D. come back
Question 18: Doctors are supposed to _______ responsibility for human life.
A. do
B. take
C. rush
D. join
Question 19: “Out of sight, out of ________.” Do you remember this proverb?
A. memory
B. mind
C. heart
D. head
Question 20: When there are small children around, it is better to put breakable ornaments out of
_______.
A. reach
B. hold
C. hand
D. place
Question 21: Candidates have to attach their birth ________ to their applications for this position.
A. certificates
B. diplomas
C. degrees
D. qualifications
Question 22: The lecturer explained the problem very clearly and is always _______ in response to
questions.
A. attention
B. attentively
C. attentive
D. attentiveness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 23: I am concerned about my children.
A. angry
B. worried
C. happy
D. sad
Question 24: Be careful! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look up
B. Look on
C. Look after
D. Look out
Question 25: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.
A. an expensive work of art
B. a down-to-earth work of art
C. an excellent work of art
D. a large work of art
Question 26: It will take more or less a month to prepare for the wedding.
A. approximately
B. simply
C. frankly
D. generally
Question 27: During the earthquake, a lot of buildings collapsed, which killed thousands of people.
A. fell down unexpectedly
B. went off accidentally
C. exploded suddenly
D. erupted violently
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 28: Waiter: “_______________?”
Mr. Smith: “I ordered boiled chicken. This is fried chicken.”
A. How would you like it?

B. Is something the matter, Sir?
C. Would you like boiled chicken or fried chicken?
D. What would you like?
Question 29: David: “How have you been recently?”
Alex: “_____________.”
A. By bus, I think
B. It’s too late now
C. Pretty busy
D. No, I’m not that busy