SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HÓA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Số báo danh
…...............……

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH
Năm học: 2013-2014
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Lớp 9 THCS
Ngày thi: 21 tháng 3 năm 2014
Thời gian : 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề này có 04 trang

…………….

Part A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I- Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from the rest of the group. (2 pts)
1. A. ploughed
B. published
C. ordered
D. prayed
2. A. closure
B. pleasant
C. decision
D. pleasure
II- Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different from the
rest of the group. (3 pts)
3. A. career

B. avoid
C. manage
D. advise
4. A. official
B. literacy
C. inventory
D. stationery
5. A. diversity
B. severe
C. education
D. courageous
Part B: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I- Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
6. The hotel has been built on the ............. of the lake.
A. border
B. boundary
C. edge
D. front
7. John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “.............!”
A. Better luck next time
B. So poor
C. Congratulations
D. That was nice of you.
8. She used to ............. her living by delivering vegetables to local hotels.
A. have
B. win
C. earn
D. get
9. Although it was raining heavily, .............
A. he went out without a raincoat.

B. but he went out without a raincoat.
C. so he went out without a raincoat.
D. however he went out without a raincoat.
10. The house was .............building.
A. a stone nice oldB. a nice old stone
C. a nice stone old
D. an old nice stone
11. Do you .............my turning the television on now?
A. object
B. disapprove
C. want
D. mind
12. Last year, Matt earned.............his brother.
A. twice as much as
B. twice as many as
C. twice more than
D. twice as more as
13. You don't have to decide now, you can............. .
A. put it aside
B. call it off
C. tear it up
D. think it over
14. Jenny and her sister are so .................. They could almost be twins.
A. likeness
B. alike
C. like
D. the same
15. They hardly believe him and .....................
A. so do I
B. neither do I

C. I do, too
D. I believe him

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II- Use the verbs in brackets in the correct tense or form. (10 pts)
16-17. Jack (be) ................... ready in a moment. He (just finish) ................... his
breakfast.
18. None of the people (invite) ................... to the party could come.
19-20. I was terribly disappointed (discover) ................... that he (lie) ................... to me.
21-22. Nothing (give) ................... to you if you (not study) ................... hard.
23. We (tell) ...................not to go out at night recently.
24-25. There is smoke and I smell something (burn) ................... . There (be) ...................
a fire nearby.
III- Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
26. We must learn about keeping our environment (POLLUTE) ............... .
27. It is also easy to save energy, which also reduces (HOUSE) .............. bills.
28-29. You needn't go on a diet; but you have to eat (SENSE) .............. and you mustn’t
(EAT) .............. .
30. Help is immediately sent to the (SURVIVE) .............. of the earthquake.
31. My brother can repair electric (APPLY) .............. very well.
32. (ENVIRONMENT) .............. are doing their best to save the species from dying out.
33. These (INNOVATE) .............. will conserve the earth’s resources.
34. The President’s New Year speech is going to be broadcast (NATION).............. .
35. Daily newspapers often have sections for news, sports, arts, and (CLASS) ..............
advertising.
Part C: READING (25 pts)
I- Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (10 pts)
Every year, eight million children across the United States spend some time at a summer camp.

For more than a century, children have enjoyed both learning new skills and (36..........) part in a
variety of activities in a friendly environment.
There are 10,000 camps across the country, which are designed to look (37. .......) youngsters
from the age of 6 to 18. The camps, (38. ........) anything from 1 to 8 weeks, are often situated
in beautiful lakeside areas and there is a wide range of (39..........) to suit every pocket. The
children typically do outdoor (40. .......), including some challenging sports like climbing, or
indoor activities such as drama, music or poetry. (41. .........) the camps are not luxurious, the
wooden cabins the young people sleep (42. .......) are
comfortable. The timetable does
not allow very much time for relaxing because the children are (43. .......) busy all the time. The
camps are popular with the children and many come away (44. .........) of enthusiasm. In the
words of one former camper, 'I made a lot of friends, (45...........) never on my own, and became
a lot more self-confident.'
II- Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.
pts)
The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (46) ....................... and important
inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past,
would have been (47)...................... by hundreds of workers can now be done by one small
computer. However, the (48)......................... of the computer has not been entirely problemfree. Many people feel that we are already too (49)..........................on computers. They think
that computers themselves are (50)........................... too powerful, and that people are no
longer in control of them.

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(10


One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can
(51).......................... If a computer is (52)........................., the information it is storing can be
lost. If a computer program has a(n) (53)......................... in it, the computer’s calculation can

be seriously (54)........................... A faulty program in a hospital or police computer could
(55)...........................terrible mistakes.
46. A. shocking
B. amazing
C. astonishing
D. surprising
47. A. done out
B. made out
C. carried out
D. figured out
48. A. usage
B. experiment
C. introduction
D. operation
49. A. dependent
B. based
C. influenced
D. carried
50. A. becoming
B. getting
C. running
D. turning
51. A. break up
B. break down
C. break into
D. break out
52. A. changed
B. modified
C. contaminated
D. damaged

53. A. foul
B. abnormality
C. wrongdoing
D. error
54. A. devalued
B. affected
C. fooled
D. broken
55. A. do
B. produce
C. find
D. cause
III- Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer (5 pts)
Many British people don’t think about clothes very much. They just like to be comfortable. When
they go out to enjoy themselves, they can wear almost anything. At theaters, cinemas and concerts
you can put on what you like from elegant suits and dresses to jeans and sweaters. Anything goes,
as long as you look clean and tidy.
But in Britain, as well as the United States, men in offices usually wear suits and ties, and women
wear dresses or skirts (not trousers). Doctors, lawyers and business people wear quite formal
clothes. And in some hotels and restaurants men have to wear ties and women wear smart dresses.
In many years, Americans are more relaxed than British people, but they are more careful with their
clothes. At home or on holiday, most Americans wear informal or sporty clothes. But when they go
out in the evening, they like to look elegant. In good hotels and restaurants, men have to wear
jackets and ties, and women wear pretty clothes and smart hairstyles.
It is difficult to say exactly what people wear informal or formal in Britain and the United States
because everyone is different. If you are not sure what to wear, watch what other people do and do
the same. You’ll feel more relaxed if you don’t look too different from everyone else.
56. Many British people wear freely when they ........................
A. attend meetings
B. attend lectures

C. spend their spare time
D. meet their friends
57. Who doesn’t usually wear suits and ties?
A. Lawyers
B. Doctors
C. Drivers
D. Secretaries
58. If you visit an American friend at home in the evening, you may find that your friend
wears.............................
A. pretty clothes B. informal clothes C. formal clothes
D. dirty clothes
59. If you are in a foreign country, the best way the writer suggests to you is to wear..................
A. strange clothes
B. as the people there do
C. your native clothes
D. pretty clothes
60. What do you think the passage is mainly about?
A. Recent dressing habit in Great Britain and the United States.
B. The reason why informal clothing is popular in Britain and the US.
C. When we should wear in a formal way.
D. Where we should wear in a formal way.

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Part D: WRITING (20 pts)
I- Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed above it. (10 pts)
61. They bought me two laptops, but neither worked satisfactorily.
They bought..................................................................................

62. Jane’s career as a television presenter began five years ago.
Jane has……………………………………………………..….…………….
63. I’m quite happy to look after the baby for you.
 I don’t..........................................................................
64. The flight to Paris lasted 3 hours.
 It took…..….…………………………….…………………
65. People say that he sold his house to pay the debt.
 He is ......................................................................
66. The passengers don’t realize how lucky they have been.
 Little..................................................................................
67. You ought to fasten your seatbelt before driving away.
 You shouldn’t ................................................................................
68. His working too much led to his illness.
 If he………..…………………………………..………
69. If someone understands this book, they are cleverer than I am.
 Anyone who.…………………….…………………………
70. “Would you like to go to the concert with me tonight?” Peter said to Ann.
 Peter invited…..……………………………..………..……………….………
II- Write a paragraph of 100 - 120 words about the thing you like to do most in
free time. (10 pts)

your

------- THE END ------

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KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HÓA

Năm học: 2013-2014
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Lớp 9 THCS
Ngày thi: 21 tháng 3 năm 2014
(Hướng dẫn gồm 02 trang)

HD CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC

A- ĐÁP ÁN:
Part A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1B

2B

3C

4A

5C

Part B: LEXICAL & GRAMMAR (30 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
I.
6C

7A

8C


9A

10B

11D

12A

13D

14B

15B

II.
16. will be
20. had lied / had been lying
24. burning

17. is just finishing
21. will be given
25. must be

18. invited
22. do not study

19. to discover
23. have been told


III.
26. unpolluted
31. appliances

27. household
32. Environmentalists

28. sensibly
33. innovations

29. overeat
34. nationwide

30. survivors
35. classified

39. prices
44. full

40. activities
45. was

Part C: READING (25 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
I.
36. taking
41. Although / Though /
While / Whereas

37. after
42. in


38. lasting
43. kept

II.
46B

47C

48C

49A

50A

51B

52D

53D

54B

55D

III.
56C

57C


58B

59B

60A

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Part D: WRITING (20 điểm)
I. (10 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
61. They bought me two laptops, but neither of which worked satisfactorily.
62. Jane has been a television presenter for five years.
Jane has worked as a television presenter for five years.
Jane has been working as a television presenter for five years.
63. I don’t mind looking after the baby for you.
64. It took 3 hours to fly to Paris.
65. He is said to have sold his house to pay the debt.
66. Little do the passengers realize how lucky they have been.
67. You shouldn’t drive away without fastening your seatbelt.
68. If he had not worked too/so much, he would not have been ill.
69. Anyone who understands this book is cleverer than I am.
70. Peter invited Ann to go to the concert with him that night.
II. 10 điểm
Marking criteria:
- Task completion – 4 điểm:
Tùy mức độ hoàn thành các yêu cầu, giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
- Grammatical accuracy and spelling – 3 điểm:
Bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và dưới 4 lỗi ngữ pháp được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 5
lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).

- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm
1-3 điểm.

B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 80 điểm
- Thang điểm:
20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
Điểm bài thi
=
4
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25

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