The best answer is C. In the last paragraph, it says that much of the postmodern notion
of self seems to fit closely with reconfigurations of the subject brought on by
electronic technologies.

Men are primarily and secondarily socialized into believing certain characteristics are
definitive in determining their masculinity. These characteristics range from playing
violently to not crying when they are injured. The socialization of masculinity in our
society begins as early as the first stages of infancy, with awareness of adult gender
role differences being internalized by children as young as two years old.
Studies show that advertising imagery equates masculinity with violence by
portraying the trait of aggression as instrumental to establishing their masculinity.
Lee Bowker, who researched the influence of advertisements on youth, asserts that
toy advertisements featuring only boys depict aggressive behavior and that the
aggressive behavior produces positive consequences more often than negative.
Bowker also looked at commercials with boys that contain references to domination.

His results indicated that 68.6% of the commercials positioned toward boys contain
incidents of verbal and physical aggression. However there were no cross gender
displays of aggressive behavior. Interestingly, not one single-sex commercial
featuring girls showed any act of aggression. Bowker’s research helps explain that it
is not just the reinforcement of a child’s close caretakers that lends legitimacy to
aggressive masculine tendencies but society as a whole, using the medium of
television.
William Pollack, a Harvard clinical psychologist, talks about how males have been
put in a "gender straightjacket" that leads to anger, despair and often violence. Pollack
states that society asks men to put a whole range of feelings and emotions behind a
mask and shames them if they display any emotion. Pollack contends that boys are
‘shame phobics’, even killing, in extreme cases, to avoid dishonor. It appears that the
standard defined by society allows men to express their emotion only through anger.
Ironically, though these rigid stereotypes of what it means to be a man have been
inculcated from an early age, men are often criticized for being one-dimensional in
their behavior and emotions.
Women often verbalize a desire for males to be sensitive and express their emotions.
But male insensitivity is the culmination of a societal indoctrination begun at birth.
Realistically, men are in a damned if they do, damned if they don’t situation. If they
fail to show their emotions, they are berated for being detached from the essence of
what constitutes a human being. On the other hand, if a male decides to expose his
emotions, he is often branded effeminate and regarded as inferior to other males who
stick closer to their gender’s traditional doctrine.

1. According to the passage, the television commercials examined by Bowker

Showed boys in more acts of verbal and physical aggression than of domination
Showed boys in more acts of domination than of verbal and physical aggression
Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression only towards other boys
Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression only towards other girls

Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression towards other boys and girls

The best answer is C. Bowker’s research did not find any cross gender displays of
aggressive behavior, i.e. aggression of one gender to another

2. According to Pollack, one of the reasons for male violence is that

Society shames men who display feelings and emotions other than anger
Men kill in extreme cases to avoid dishonor
Men are often criticized for being one-dimensional in their behavior and emotions
Society uses television as a symbol of its desires
Reinforcement from child’s close caretakers lends legitimacy to aggressive masculine
behavior

The best answer is A. (B) is incorrect because it does not give a reason for violence.
(C) is a result of the conditioning that leads to violence, not a reason. (D) and (E) are
incorrect because they are not opinions expressed by Pollack.

3. The passage suggests that, when compared with television advertisement featuring
boys, advertisements that had only girls were found

To have more references to domination
To be 68.6% less aggressive
To be remarkably similar in focus and content
To be replete with extensive examples of cross gender aggression
To be void of any acts of aggression

The best answer is E. Bowker found that not one single-sex commercial featuring
girls showed any act of aggression.


4. Pollack uses the term ‘gender straightjacket’ to emphasize

The narrow range of emotion that society allows men to express
The broad range of emotion that society allows men to express
The danger of anger, despair and violence towards men
The danger of anger, despair and violence perpetrated by men
The wide range of feelings that men actually experience

The best answer is A. Society does not allow men to act in ways it has deemed
inappropriate, hence Pollack considers the male gender to be in a ‘straightjacket’.



















Juror anonymity was unknown to American common law and jurisprudence in the

country’s first two centuries. Anonymity was first employed in federal prosecutions of
organized crime in New York in the 1980's. Although anonymous juries are unusual
since they are typically only empanelled in organized-crime cases, its use has spread
more recently to widely publicized cases, such as the federal prosecution of police
officers accused of beating Rodney King and the trial of those accused of the 1993
World Trade Center bombing.

In these cases, attorneys selected a jury from a panel of prospective jurors whose
names, addresses, ethnic backgrounds and religious affiliations remained unknown to
either side. This unorthodox procedure, designed to protect jurors from outside
influence and the fear of retaliation, has occasionally been employed in New York
federal courts since the trial of drug kingpin Leroy "Nicky" Barnes. Despite apparent
benefits, critics assail anonymous juries on the grounds that they are an infringement
of the sixth amendment guarantee of an impartial jury and because they present a
serious and unnecessary erosion of the presumption of innocence.

Since many attorneys believe trials are frequently won or lost during jury selection,
any procedure diminishing the role of counsel in the procedure necessitates close
scrutiny and criticism. Opponents of anonymous juries argue that the procedure
restricts meaningful voir dire, (questioning of the jury panel), and thereby undermines
the defendant's sixth amendment right to an impartial jury. Critics also claim that
jurors interpret their anonymity as proof of the defendant's criminal proclivity,
thereby subverting the presumption of innocence.

However, consistent with due process and the sixth amendment, the trial judge may
refuse to ask prospective jurors any questions not reasonably calculated to expose
biases or prejudices relevant to the case. Although addresses and group affiliations
may indicate significant potential for bias, attorneys do not have an unfettered right to
this information in every circumstance. Denying access to these facts may indeed
constrain an attorney's ability to assemble an ideal jury, but it violates no

constitutional right.


1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Enumerate reasons why anonymous juries are unconstitutional
Discuss whether anonymous juries are an infringement of the sixth amendment
Identify a shortcoming in a scholarly approach to jurisprudence
Define the concept of anonymous juries and explore efforts taken over the last twenty
years to increase their use
Review strategies for ensuring that anonymous juries will not infringe on the
constitutional right to a fair trial of one’s peers

The best answer is B. The passage introduces the concept of anonymous juries and
goes on to discuss their constitutionality.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that a jurors ethnic background and religious
affiliation

Is considered by defendants not to have a significant effect on the outcome of their
trials
Is considered by defendants to have a significant effect on the outcome of their trials
Would be unlikely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial
Is considered by attorneys likely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial
Is considered by attorneys unlikely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial
in a widely publicized case

The best answer is D. In paragraph three it states that many attorneys believe trials are
frequently won or lost during jury selection. The passage gives no information on
what defendant think about anonymous juries.


3. One function of the fourth paragraph of the passage is to

Qualify the extent to which a previously introduced viewpoint may be relevant
Expose the flaw in a criticism put forth in a previous paragraph
Introduce information that supports a theory put forth in a previous paragraph
Support an argument in favor of a given interpretation of a situation
Show the chain of reasoning that led to the conclusions of a specific study

The best answer is B. Critics of anonymous juries base their arguments on the fact
that these juries are unconstitutional. In the fourth paragraph, the author explains that
while anonymous juries may not be ideal, they are not unconstitutional.


4. Which of the following, if true, would ensure that anonymous juries are not an
erosion of the presumption of innocence?

Anonymous juries are used in all court cases, regardless of identity of the defendant.
Anonymous juries are used in all court cases involving previously convicted
defendants.
Anonymous juries are used in all court cases, involving never before convicted
defendants.
Anonymous juries are used in all widely publicized court cases, regardless of identity
of the defendant.
Anonymous juries are used in all widely publicized court cases, involving previously
convicted defendants.

The best answer is A. Anonymous juries are a potential erosion of the presumption of
innocence only because they are now used in cases in which there is a perceived
danger to the jurist, which presupposes a defendant capable of perpetrating a crime. If

anonymous juries were used in each and every case, they would no longer
differentiate between dangerous and harmless defendants.







Alexander Calder was one of the most innovative and
original American artists of the twentieth century. Calder
arrived in Paris in 1926 and devoted himself to a innovative
project comprised of animals made out of wire, scraps of
cloth, wood, cork, labels, bits of scrap metal and pieces of
rubber that he called the Circus. During his performances,
Calder invented ways to simulate the flight of birds: “These
are little bits of white paper, with a hole and slight weight on
each one, which flutter down several variously coiled thin
steel wires which I jiggle so that they flutter down like
doves.” The Circus was the laboratory of Calder’s work; in
it he experimented with new formulas and techniques. By
1930, Calder's Circus had developed into one of the real
successes of the Montparnasse art world attracting the
attention of such renowned artists as Fernand Leger and
Joan Miro. Encouragement from the upper echelons of the
Parisian art scene undoubtedly led him to try more serious
experiments in wire sculptures.
Calder eventually becoming interested in the movement of objects, some of which he
motorized. In 1933, Calder completed Object with Red Discs, a sculpture he
described as a two-meter rod with a heavy sphere, suspended from the apex of a wire,

giving it a cantilever effect. It had five thin aluminum discs projected at right angels
from five wires, held in position by a spherical counterweight. With this new creation,
the idea of the mobile was born. In creating a work named Constellations in 1943,
Calder explored the plastic possibilities of mobiles; he used small pieces of wood,
which he shaped and sometimes painted. From this point on, Calder’s ambition
changed focus. He sought more challenging designs. One of Calder’s objectives was
to display objects in the air, giving the viewer the experience of finding new skies
filled with moving and colored constellations. Calder accomplished this in Acoustic
Ceiling (1954). Calder’s humor was evident in such works as Le Bougnat (1959) and
The Pagoda (1963). Later, Calder cut fantastic animals from sheet metal, creating La
Vache and Elephant (both 1970) and a mobile entitled Nervous Wreck (1976), which
represents the red skeleton of a fish.
Calder defined volume without mass and incorporated movement and time in art. His
inventions, which redefined certain basic principles of sculpture, have established him
as the most innovative sculptor of the twentieth century.

1. According to the passage, which of the following is an accurate statement about
Object with Red Discs?

It was the first mobile created by Calder.
It was one of the many mobiles without motors created by Calder.
It was one of the many motorized mobiles created by Calder.
It was the first motorized mobile created by Calder.
It was the first of the many mobiles without motors created by Calder.

The best answer is A. According to the passage, Object with Red Discs is Calder’s
first mobile. It states that Calder became interested in the movement of objects, some
of which he motorized, but there is no information given on whether this particular
sculpture was motorized.


2. According to the passage, all of the following are characteristic of Calder’s work
EXCEPT

Calder was known to infuse humor into some of his creation
Calder suspended objects from each other
Calder motorized some of his creations
Calder used materials such as metal, cloth, wood, rubber, cork
Calder suspended glass from thin metal wires to create a cantilever effect

The best answer is E. The passage makes no mention of glass as one of the materials
Calder used.


3. The author’s attitude toward the mobiles of Alexander Calder is best described as

Hesitance
Detachment
Amusement
Admiration
Indifference

The best answer is D. The author presents only a positive criticism of Calder, stating
that he is the most innovative sculptor of the twentieth century.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following statement was true
of the Parisian art scene?

The work of Fernand Leger and Joan Miro was influenced by that of Alexander
Calder.
The work of Alexander Calder was influenced by that of Fernand Leger and Joan

Miro.
Fernand Leger and Joan Miro had earned success in the art world before Alexander
Calder.
Alexander Calder had earned success in the art world before Fernand Leger and Joan
Miro.
Calder’s Circus earned more accolades from the upper echelons of the Parisian art
scene than any other work in its time.

The best answer is C. According to the passage, Calder’s early work attracting the
attention of such renowned artists as Fernand Leger and Joan Miro. It can be inferred
that Leger and Miro were already famous when Calder was just starting out.


Intuitively, intellectual skills and perceptual-motor skills seem very different because
perceptual-motor skills appear more primitive. Ontogenetically, perceptual-motor
skills develop before intellectual skills, or at least before most intellectual skills are
manifested. Phylogenetically, creatures "high on the evolutionary ladder" are more
obviously capable of intellectual skills than are creatures "lower down ".

Perceptual-motor skills also seem more closely tied to specific forms of expression.
Being a chess player does not mean one can only play with pieces of a certain size,
that one can only move pieces with one's right hand, and so on. By contrast, being a
violinist means one can play an instrument whose size occupies a fairly narrow range
and that one must play with a rather rigid assignment of functions to effectors
(bowing with the right hand, and fingering with the left). The seeming narrowness of
this perceptual-motor skill expression, contrasted with the seeming openness of
intellectual skill expression, seems to follow from intellectual skills having symbolic
outcomes and perceptual-motor skills having non-symbolic outcomes. Symbolic
outcomes need not be realized in specific ways and can rely on abstract rules. Non-
symbolic outcomes, by contrast, need more specific forms of realization and seem to

depend on restricted associations between stimuli and responses .

Another difference between intellectual and perceptual-motor skills is that the two
kinds of skill seem to be represented in different parts of the brain. For example,
structures homologous to the optic tectum, a nucleus located on the dorsal surface of
the midbrain, have a common function in all vertebrates coordinating visual,
auditory, and somatosensory information relevant to the control of orienting
movements of the eyes, ears, and head. Similarities in structure and function between
these and other brain areas associated with perceptual-motor behavior suggest that
mechanisms for control of perceptual-motor skills are both highly specialized and
conserved across species. In contrast, what distinguishes the human brain from the
brains of other species even closely related ones is the differential growth of
brain regions most strongly associated with intellectual skills, such as the association
areas of the cerebral cortex.

The contention that these areas serve intellectual functions is supported by a large
body of clinical and experimental literature. Together, these diverse sources of
information suggest that perceptual-motor and intellectual skills depend on distinct
brain circuits .

1. The passage is chiefly concerned with

Presenting a new theory and describing a new method to test that theory
Suggesting an alternative to an outdated research method
Demonstrating that perceptual-motor skills are closely tied to specific forms of
expression
Arguing that two seemingly dissimilar skills are more alike than was previously
assumed
Presenting evidence on two dissimilar skills that resolves a contradiction


The best answer is D. The passage presents evidence to back the claims that
intellectual skills and perceptual-motor skills are more similar than was once believed.






2. The author mentions the game of chess in paragraph two primarily in order to

Present an example of an intellectual skill the mastery of which is not closely tied to
specific forms of expression.
Present an example of an intellectual skill the mastery of which is closely tied to
specific forms of expression.
Present an example of a skill that is both an intellectual skill and a perceptual-motor
skill, the mastery of which is closely tied to specific forms of expression.
Present an example of a perceptual-motor skill the mastery of which is not closely tied
to specific forms of expression.
Present an example of a perceptual-motor skill the mastery of which is closely tied to
specific forms of expression.

The best answer is A. Chess is an intellectual skill the mastery of which is not closely
tied to specific forms of expression. In other words, once one has learned to play the
game, one can vary the way one plays, by using one’s left hand instead of one’s right,
for instance.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the optic tectum

Functions similarly in animal and in plants
Functions similarly in vertebrates and invertebrates

Is located in a comparable area of the brains of humans and giraffes
Coordinates somatosensory moment in snakes
Has a much more sophisticated structure than the cerebral cortex

The best answer is C. According to the passage, the optic tectum occupies the same
area of the brain in all vertebrates (animals with a spinal column).


4. The passage provides support for which of the following statements

Creatures "high on the evolutionary ladder" are not less capable of perceptual-motor
skills than are creatures "lower down ".
Playing a violin is a perceptual-motor skill.
The shape and size of the cerebral cortex is what distinguishes the human brain from
the brains of other species
Literature is an intellectual activity that is understood using the cerebral cortex of area
of the brain.
Perceptual-motor and intellectual skills exploit the same brain circuits.

The best answer is B. The author uses the violin as an example of a perceptual-motor
skill.


Considerable debate exists in the self-perception literature
over the impact of positively biased self-perceptions on social
and psychological functioning. Positively based self-
perceptions are those in which an individual has a more
positive opinion of himself than objective indicators
warrant. One view suggests that positive perceptual biases
are characteristic of normal human thought across a variety

of domains and correlate positively with good mental and
psychological health. Certain researchers and clinicians
have even proposed that by boosting self-concepts,
symptoms of depression and levels of aggression may be
reduced.

Investigators on the other side of the debate maintain that when most positive self-
perceptions are compared to an objective criterion, they appear neither positively
biased nor adaptive. In fact, Baumeister, Smart, and Boden suggest that positively
biased self-concepts may have a ‘dark side’. They proposed that it is persons with
very positive self-views who are prone to be aggressive. As a result, building up
individuals' self-perceptions may serve only to increase levels of aggression rather
than curb them.

According to Baumeister et al., not all individuals with positive self-perceptions are
going to be interpersonally aggressive. Rather, individuals who are extremely positive
in their perceptions of themselves and their functioning are proposed to be the most
likely to become angry and potentially violent. The mechanism that triggers
aggressive behavior by these individuals has been suggested to be negative social
feedback that challenges their positive self-views. Such threats to positive self-esteem
give rise to anger and hostility.

If negative social information is encountered that challenges established positive self-
perceptions, Baumeister et al. propose that individuals must choose to either accept
the feedback and lower their self-perceptions or reject the feedback to maintain their
positive self-views. The chosen reaction then influences their subsequent affective
states and behavioral expressions. By accepting the external appraisals and adjusting
self-perceptions downward, dysphoric feelings and social withdrawal may result.
Conversely, the rejection of the validity of the unfavorable feedback results in
feelings of anger and resentment toward the source of the threat. Dodge and

colleagues demonstrated that children who interpret social cues as threatening direct
their anger and aggression at the peers who gave the negative evaluations. Anger
stemming from the receipt of social criticism is a way to deny the legitimacy of the
negative information. By directing hostile reactions toward the source of the negative
feedback, the influx of disconfirming information may end. Unless individuals react
against the self-esteem threat, they may be compelled to revise their self-concepts
negatively, in line with the information provided. By discounting the negative social
feedback, individuals can protect themselves from dysphoric feelings and maintain
their positively biased self-perceptions, but they may be setting themselves up to
become interpersonally aggressive.

Although positively biased self-perceptions may place individuals at risk for negative
social feedback and subsequent increases in aggressive behavior, not all positive self-
concepts are suggested to be harmful. The relationship between positive self-
perceptions and aggression may depend on the degree of perceptual distortion (i.e.,
moderate vs. extreme distortion). Baumeister (1989) and Baumeister et al. (1996)
proposed that an optimal range of moderate bias might exist within which mental
health is encouraged. Maladjustment in psychological and social functioning is
suggested to occur when the degree of bias of self-perceptions shifts from moderate to
extreme levels. Extremely negative and positive perceptual bias would be related to
different but equally harmful difficulties.

1. The primary purpose of this passage is to

Present two explanations of a phenomenon and reconcile the differences between
them
Discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon that is not yet fully understood
Challenge the validity of a theory by presenting evidence that the opposite is true in
some cases
Summarize two theories and suggest a third theory that overcomes the problems

encountered in the first two
Present evidence that resolves a contradiction

The best answer is C. The passage challenges the validity of the theory that positively
biased self-perception is closely correlated with normal human thought and good
mental health by showing how a very high self-perception may lead to violent
behavior.


2. According to the passage, which of the following is mentioned as a factor in
determining whether an individual with positively biased self-perception would
actually be likely to perform an act of violence?

The gap between what the individual thinks about himself and how good he really is
The gender of the individual
The anger level of the individual’s peers
The individual’s ability to ignore dysphoric feelings
The validity of the unfavorable feedback

The best answer is A. It is the distortion between how the person really is and how he
perceives himself that is the most important factor, as opposed to the level of self-
perception itself.


3. The passage discusses the likelihood of violence stemming from which of the
following types of individuals?

An individual with a moderately positive self-perception who receives negative
feedback from his peers
An individual with a highly positive self-perception who receives negative feedback

from his peers
An individual with a highly negative self-perception who receives positive feedback
from his peers
An individual with a highly negative self-perception who receives negative feedback
from his peers
An individual with a dark side who receives negative feedback from his peers

The best answer is B. According to the passage, when negative social information is
encountered by a person with a highly elevated level of self-perception, it may lead to
violence.





4. One function of the fifth paragraph is to

State a conclusion about facts presented in an earlier paragraph
Show the chain of reasoning that led to the conclusions of a specific study
Qualify the extent to which a previously presented theory may apply
Introduce information that confirms an established theory
Provide examples that support a new theory

The best answer is C. Up to the fifth paragraph, the passage discusses the possibility
that individuals with highly positive self-perception are prone to performing violent
acts. Paragraph three qualifies this by stating that not all positive self-concepts are
suggested to be harmful.





















Gastrostomy tubes are commonly used to provide nutrition and hydration for patients
unwilling or unable to maintain an adequate oral intake. Among hospitalized patients
aged 65 years or older in the United States, the number undergoing placement of a
gastrostomy tube increased from 61000 in 1988 to 121000 in 1995. In 1990 and
1991, roughly one in every hundred hospitalized patients aged 85 years or older
received a gastrostomy tube.

The short-term mortality rates following gastrostomy placement are high. In a cohort
of more than 7000 American veterans who underwent placement of percutaneous
endoscopic gastrostomy tubes between 1990 and 1992, median survival was 7.5
months and 1-year mortality was 59%. Among Medicare beneficiaries receiving
gastrostomy tubes in 1991, 30-day and 1-year mortality was 24% and 63%,
respectively. Because tube insertion itself is only rarely associated with fatal

complications, the high short-term mortality clearly reflects a substantial underlying
co-morbidity in this population. Most patients receiving gastrostomy tubes have
advanced dementia, other types of severe neurological impairment, cancer, or
advanced failure of other internal organs.

The growing use of tube feeding in a population with limited life expectancy
inevitably raises the following question: Do physicians discuss the benefits and
burdens of tube feeding adequately with patients or surrogate decision-makers before
gastrostomy tubes are inserted? Assessing benefits and burdens is an integral part of
informed decision-making and should precede any elective life-sustaining
intervention. However, anecdotal observations and a recent interview study raise
serious questions about the quality of the informed consent process preceding the
insertion of gastrostomy tubes.

A small body of literature suggests that fully informed patients or their surrogates
might in fact decline permanent tube feeding at a higher-than-expected rate. For
example, in the study by Callahan et al, nearly half of the patients undergoing
gastrostomy placement (or their surrogates) reported that no alternatives had been
discussed before insertion of the tube. O'Brien and colleagues asked 379 mentally
competent nursing home residents if they would want a gastrostomy tube if they
became unable to eat because of permanent brain damage; only 33% expressed a
preference for tube feedings in this circumstance. In an interview study of 121
competent patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, only 28% favored feeding by
gastrostomy .



1. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) the morbidity and mortality rates associated with the use of gastrostomy tubes
(B) the proliferation of the use of gastronomy tubes in patients aged 85 years or older

(C) whether physicians adequately discuss the benefits and burdens of tube feeding
with patients or surrogate decision-makers before gastrostomy tubes are inserted
(D) the growing number of patients undergoing placement of a gastrostomy tube
(E) the complications that often follow the insertion of a percutaneous endoscopic
gastrostomy tube

The best answer is C. The question raised in the passage is not whether to use
gastrostomy tubes and what the dangers of using one might be, rather the passage
examines the issue of informed consent before the insertion of a tube.

2. According to the passage, the high mortality rate following gastrostomy found in
research cited in paragraph two is not necessarily a direct result of the placement of a
gastrostomy tube because
(A) tube insertion itself is only rarely associated with fatal complications
(B) 30-day and 1-year mortality was 24% and 63% respectively in 1991 among
Medicare beneficiaries
(C) only cases in which the percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube was
incorrectly place were examined
(D) all the patients in the studies mentioned suffered from life threatening diseases
(E) most of the patients in the studies mentioned suffered from life threatening
diseases

The best answer is E. In paragraph two it is stated that most subject tested suffered
from one of a number of potentially fatal diseases. Hence, the mortality rate found in
patients that receiving a tube, was not necessarily due to the use of the tube, but to the
disease itself or to some other treatment.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) there are alternatives to the use of gastrostomy tubes to provide nutrition but not
hydration for patients unwilling or unable to maintain an adequate oral intake.

(B) there are alternatives to the use of gastrostomy tubes to provide hydration but not
nutrition for patients unwilling or unable to maintain an adequate oral intake.
(C) there are alternatives to the use of gastrostomy tubes to provide nutrition and
hydration for patients unwilling or unable to maintain an adequate oral intake.
(D) the alternatives to gastrostomy tubes do not provide adequate nutrition and
hydration
(E) the alternatives to gastrostomy tubes provide more adequate nutrition and
hydration than the gastrostomy tubes

The best answer is C. The passage suggests that if patients were offered alternatives
to gastrostomy tubes, some of them would choose them. We can infer from this that
alternatives exist.

4. The author uses the word “only” in line ??? [third line from the end] most likely in
order to
(A) highlight the oddity of the decision of the patients
(B) emphasize the relatively low percentage of patients that would opt for a
gastrostomy tube if given the choice
(C) point out the limited value of inserting a gastrostomy tube
(D) distinguish the primary factor in the decision making process of brain damaged
patients
(E) single out a unique merit of gastrostomy tubes for brain damaged patients

The best answer is B. The passage draws attention to the fact that patients and their
surrogates are often not asked if they agree to the use of a gastrostomy tube.
O'Brien’s study indicates that a relatively small percentage – only 33% - stated that
they would want the tube if they were unable to eat because of permanent brain
damage.


















































A ragtag group of idealistic hackers scattered round the world has created software
and devised a revolutionary method for writing it that poses a direct threat to
Microsoft's revenue. Their programs are already running most of the Internet.
According to a survey by the British consultancy Netcraft, the Web server software
Apache is used by more than half of all websites. Furthermore, software named
Sendmail moves nearly every e-mail message across the Internet, while the BIND
program acts as a traffic cop for most of the global network, directing messages down
the right connections to their final destinations

The proven robustness of these programs is worry enough for Microsoft. To make
matters worse, all of them, and many others, are completely free in two senses: one
does not have to pay for them, and the "source code" in which they are written is
openly available. Additionally, one may modify the programs and even sell the result.


The "open source" movement is Microsoft's worst nightmare: a group of programmers
that it cannot out-compete because its members are not motivated by profit, and which
it cannot buy because it does not exist as a formal company.

In the vanguard of the open source movement is Linux, started in 1991 by a 21-year-
old Finn, Linus Torvalds, who wanted to write a free alternative to Unix, a popular
but costly operating system. Today Linux is used by an estimated 7 million people,
and the number is growing rapidly. One of Linux's advantages is that it runs on almost
any hardware, from multi-processor supercomputers down to Palm Pilots. It is
compact (it can fit on a floppy), highly efficient and very fast .

Torvalds did not invent the idea of software that is doubly free but he has stumbled
upon and developed a crucially important Darwinian dynamic. In a commercial
software company, every program is carefully planned, and writing tasks are allotted
unilaterally by the project leader. Linux is different. It is designed as a series of
modules, and anyone can work on any of these interlocking elements. Whether one’s
work gets included in the final release depends on the consensus view of how good it
is natural selection in action. The only reward anyone, even Torvalds, gets for this
work is kudos from fellow hackers. That is enough, it seems, to attract a flow of keen
recruits, typically computer science students or software engineers who code Linux on
the side.

Such purposive anarchy is made possible by the Internet. Trial versions of programs
can be downloaded, and comments sent back to the authors, wherever they are.
Programs frequently evolve on a daily basis. With the help of the Internet, the Linux
model exploits the ingenuity of hundreds of programmers and hundreds of thousands
of testers. It is a pool of creativity that Microsoft, with its huge resources, will never
be able to match.

1. The author mentions that a particular bit of software is included into the final

release of Linux only by consensus as an example of
(A) how writing tasks are allotted unilaterally by the project leader
(B) the modularity of Linux
(C) Linux’s unorthodox system of rewards
(D) the careful planning that goes into Linux software
(E) the process of natural selection at work in the field of computer programming
The best answer is E. The author describes the workings of Linux as having a
‘Darwinian dynamic’ – it works on the principle of natural selection. Only the fittest
software is used.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that if Linux existed as a formal company
(A) it would be used by more than the estimated 7 million people that currently use it
(B) its software would be more costly than Unix
(C) its software would still be less costly than Unix
(D) Microsoft would try to acquire it
(E) it could compete with Microsoft

The best answer is D. According to the passage, Microsoft cannot buy Linux because
it does not exist as a formal company.


3. According to the passage, programmers are motivated to create software for Linux
I. to earn accolades
II. for pecuniary gain
III. to learn how to successfully hack software
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III


The best answer is A. The author states that the only reward anyone gets for work on
Linux is kudos, or accolades, from fellow hackers.

4. The passage mentions each of the following as factors contributing to the success
of groups creating open source software EXCEPT
(A) the groups use the Internet to gather together hundreds of thousands of testers
(B) the groups do not exist as formal companies
(C) the products are designed to work on Palm Pilots
(D) the groups are not motivated by profit
(E) the programs evolve frequently

The best answer is C. The author mentions Palm Pilots only in relation to the Linux
program. No information is given on whether other open source software is versatile
enough to run on Palm Pilots.











The cyclic rise and fall in population size that has been observed in animal and pre-
modern human populations reflects sequential phases of population growth and
decline. Disregarding the possible selective influences of migration, these cyclic
movements must ultimately be accounted for in terms of the range of variation in

fertility and mortality.

No downward trend in mortality is apparent in any country before the middle of the
eighteenth century, about the same time that population growth began to demonstrate
an exponential curve. The initial period of sustained population growth in nearly
every country for which reliable data are available corresponds with at least two
decisive changes in the death rate. First, the fluctuations in mortality became less
frequent and less drastic. Second, the initial, slow sometimes imperceptible decline
in mortality gradually gained momentum and eventually stabilized at relatively low
levels in the twentieth century. Thus, steady increases in life expectancy,
progressively diminishing death rates and more stable and predictable mortality
patterns have accompanied the persistent increments in world population.

In England and Wales, Japan, Ceylon and Chile an exponential pattern of population
growth has accompanied the downward trend in mortality. In England and Wales,
where the transition from high to low vital rates occurred over two centuries, the
exponential growth curve was attenuated only after fertility fell and approached the
low level of mortality; this pattern was less apparent for Japan, where an accelerated
transition occurred over several decades. Although data concerning the relative effects
of mortality and fertility on population growth are incomplete for the early transitional
period, it seems likely that a significant though temporary increase in fertility may
have added momentum to the population explosion set off by steady improvements in
survivorship. The influence of fertility is particularly apparent in the rapid population
growth of currently developing nations that have not yet completed their transitions,
for example, Chile and Ceylon. In most of these developing countries, the death rate
has declined rapidly in recent years, especially since World War II, and the birth rate
has remained high with minor fluctuations. This sudden widening of the demographic
gap has produced unprecedented high rates of population growth.

1. Which of the following best describes the content of the passage?

(A) A discussion of how recently developed methods of monitoring population
growth differ from older methods
(B) A description of some of the factors effecting cyclic changes in population

(C) A chronology of the development of different methods for monitoring population
growth
(D) A proposal for improving the accuracy of current methods to monitor fluctuations
in population
(E) An argument concerning the nature of the exponential pattern of population
growth has accompanied the downward trend in mortality

The best answer is B. (A) is incorrect because no recently developed methods are
mentioned in the passage. (C) is wrong because the information given is not
chronological. (D) and (E) are incorrect because the passage neither proposes nor
argues anything.

2. According to the passage, the fertility rate
(A) in Japan has remained constant over the last several decades
(B) in England and Wales has remained constant over the last two centuries
(C) fell at a similar rate in England, Wales and Japan
(D) fell at a faster rate in Japan than in England and Wales
(E) fell at a slower rate in Japan than in England and Wales

The best answer is D. According to the passage the transition from a high fertility
rate to a low one occurred over two centuries in England and Wales. The fertility fell
in Japan over a period of several decades.

3. According to the passage, population increase in currently developing nations is a
result of
(A) the recent decline in death rate, especially over the last 50 years, and a birth rate

that is consistently high with minor fluctuations.
(B) the recent decline in birth rate, especially over the last 50 years, and a death rate
that is consistently high with minor fluctuations.
(C) the recent decline in death rate, especially over the last 150 years, and a birth rate
that is consistently high with minor fluctuations.
(D) the recent decline in birth rate, especially over the last 150 years, and a death rate
that is consistently high with minor fluctuations.
(E) the recent rise in death rate, especially over the last 50 years, accompanied by a
similar rise in birth rate.

The best answer is A. According to the passage, the death rate in currently
developing nations has declined rapidly since World War II, while the birth rate has
remained high with minor fluctuations.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the first downward mortality trend
(A) followed great fluctuations in fertility rates
(B) followed great fluctuations in death rates
(C) appeared after World War II
(D) appeared before World War II
(E) appeared around 1750

The best answer is E. According to the passage, no downward trend in mortality was
noticeable before the middle of the eighteenth century.














Researchers criticize the transaction cost economics (TCE) paradigm for over-
generalizing the assumption of opportunism as part of human nature. However, some
suggest that individualists have a higher opportunistic propensity in intra-group
transactions, and collectivists in inter-group transactions. This cultural specification of
opportunism helps TCE to accommodate more effectively some criticisms and more
realistically deal with problems of economic organization in today's global economy.

Transaction cost economics was first proposed by Coase and later popularized by
Williamson. One of its key building blocks is the assumption of opportunism,
because individuals, as Williamson claims, "will not reliably self-enforce promises
but will defect from the letter and spirit of an agreement when it suits their purposes".
Since, evidently, not all economic players are likely to be opportunistic, such a
reliance on the assumption of opportunism has resulted in a torrent of criticisms,
calling it dangerous, unhealthy, bad for practice, and an ethereal hand for
organizational researchers. A primary reason TCE has provoked such a debate is
precisely because it is centered on the assumption of opportunism, which touches on a
fundamental question of human nature.

To further develop this paradigm it is necessary to respond to the criticisms by
clarifying and strengthening this important assumption. To be sure, TCE scholars
never assumed that all (or most) individuals are likely to be opportunistic all (or most
of) the time - a clearly indefensible position. Instead, most individuals are assumed to
be "engaged in business-as-usual, with little or no thought to opportunism, most of the
time". However, TCE suggests that it is the inability to differentiate opportunists,

who may be a minority, from non-opportunists ex ante that necessitates the
assumption of opportunism. TCE’s critics, on the other hand, do not suggest that
opportunism does not exist; rather, they caution against an over-reliance on the
opportunism assumption because it may not be realistic to hold this assumption
constant across individuals and organizations around the world. In order to make
further theoretical progress, researchers must tackle the harder and more interesting
issues of what kinds of individuals are likely to be opportunists, under what
circumstances, and to what extent. Such an improved understanding of opportunism is
important in today' s increasingly global economy, in which economic players from
different backgrounds routinely interact with each other.

1. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which of the
following?
(A) Comparing two different approaches to a problem
(B) Present a criticism of an assumption and suggesting how to clarify it
(C) Describing a problem and proposing a solution
(D) Presenting data and drawing conclusions from the data
(E) Comparing two different analyses of a current situation

The best answer is B. The passage presents criticism that TCE’s assumption of
opportunism has provoked and suggests what research should be carried out to resolve
the issue.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of TCE?
(A) All economic players are likely to be opportunistic
(B) The majority of economic players are opportunistic
(C) The majority of human beings are opportunistic
(D) Not all opportunists are opportunistic under the same circumstances
(E) TCE has provoked such a debate because it is centered on the assumption of
fundamentalism


The best answer is D. According to the passage, TCE advocates claim that
individualists have a higher opportunistic propensity in intra-group transactions, and
collectivists in inter-group transactions. Thus, it can be inferred that not all
opportunists act in an opportunistic fashion under the same circumstances

3. Which of the following would most logically be the topic of the paragraph
immediately following the passage?
(A) Specific ways to determine what kinds of individuals are likely to be
opportunists, under what circumstances, and to what extent
(B) The contributions of TCE to economic theory
(C) Ways in which opportunists take advantage of unsuspecting business men
(D) Nontraditional methods of testing individuals to find out if they are opportunists
(E) The centrality of TSE to the position of opportunists in the business world

The best answer is A. In the last paragraph of the passage it says that in order to make
further theoretical progress researchers must tackle the issue of what kinds of
individuals are likely to be opportunists, under what circumstances, and to what
extent. It is logical that the following paragraph would do so.

4. The quotation in line ??? ["will not reliably self-enforce….] is most probably used
to
(A) counter a position that the author of the passage believes is correct
(B) counter a position that the author of the passage believes is incorrect
(C) elucidate a term
(D) point out a paradox
(E) present a historical maxim

The best answer is C. The quotation is most likely used to explain what is meant by
the term opportunism.

















The mystery of cloud formation is as ancient as mankind. Throughout history, man
prayed for rain and feared snow and lightning. Only in the last few decades, was man
able to experiment and answer many questions as to how clouds are formed. Lately, it
has seemed that no almost queries were left in that field. However, a recent look at old
experimental data is threatening to overturn a longstanding theory about how water
droplets freeze within clouds .

Suspended water droplets can remain liquid even at temperatures far below the
normal freezing point. Data collected in recent years show that clouds as cold as –
37.5°C can still contain many liquid droplets of water. Such droplets freeze solid
almost instantly if they bump into each other or are otherwise disturbed . Most
scientists have long assumed that a tiny globule of pure, liquid water, when disturbed,
begins to freeze around an icy seed that suddenly forms inside it. According to this
scenario, the time needed to freeze a given volume of water dispersed into a fine mist

is independent of the size of the individual droplets because the formation of a seed
particle is a chance event .
However, the results of recent laboratory experiments, when combined with
information gathered from tests conducted as many as 30 years ago, do not support
this scenario. Together, the data indicate that the time needed to freeze a given
volume of liquid water varies drastically according to droplet size. This extreme
variation makes sense if freezing begins at the surface of the drops, not at the cores.
Dividing a given volume of water into a large number of small droplets yields more
total surface area than if the volume is split into a small number of large drops. The
freezing rate would then depend on the surface area .

The laws of thermodynamics also argue against ice nuclei forming inside liquid
droplets. When water molecules begin to assemble into ice crystals, they release large
amounts of latent heat. If that process had occurred in the center of a liquid droplet,
the heat would have remained trapped within the globule, slowing the freezing
process. But if crystallization begins at the droplet's surface, latent heat can more
easily transfer to the surrounding air. In this case, the droplets are so cold that heat
released internally as crystallization proceeds probably would not melt the developing
ice .

Familiar as clouds are, the behavior of their constituent droplets remains only partly
understood. Lightning, rainfall, and other meteorological phenomena vary with the
ratio of water droplets and ice particles in clouds. Linking freezing rates of clouds to
those atmospheric and other climate processes is one of the most unreliable areas in
current climate simulations.

1. According to the passage, if a given volume of water is divided into a large
number of small droplets, as opposed to a smaller number or large droplets, it will
freeze quicker. This indicates that
(A) a given volume of water yields more droplets when below freezing

(B) a given volume of water yields more droplets when above freezing
(C) freezing begins simultaneously both at the cores and at the surface of the drops
(D) freezing begins not at the surface of the drops, but at the cores
(E) freezing begins not at the cores of the drops, but at the surface

The best answer is E. If the relatively large amount of surface area provided by small
droplets influences the time it takes to freeze, then freezing must begin on the surface
of the droplets.

2. According to the passage, all of the following are characteristic of cloud droplets
EXCEPT
(A) they periodically bump into each other
(B) the time needed to freeze a given volume of water dispersed into a fine mist is
dependent on the size of the individual droplets
(C) can remain liquid even at temperatures far below the normal freezing point
(D) they are only partly understood by scientists
(E) they appear in the same amount in clouds involved in various meteorological
phenomena

The best answer is E. According to the passage, the ratio of water droplets and ice
particles in clouds varies in lightning, rainfall, and other meteorological phenomena

3. The passage suggests that many questions in the field of meteorology
(A) have been answered
(B) have no answers
(C) have yet to be answered
(D) have been answered incorrectly
(E) are uninteresting to scientists today
The best answer is A. The author states that it has lately seemed that no almost
queries were left in meteorology.


4. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present several explanations for a well-known fact
(B) argue in favor of a long-standing theory
(C) discuss the implications of a new research finding
(D) present new evidence that overturns a long-standing theory
(E) question the methodology used in a study.

The best answer is D. The passage presents new evidence on how water droplets
freeze which overturns a long-standing theory that claims that droplets freeze from
their center.














To unravel the extent to which Shakespeare is accorded cultural capital in India, two
examples from popular culture will be examined - one from an Air India
advertisement and another from a Hollywood film in the making that casts
‘Bollywood’ star Hrithik Roshan as an Indian king in Rajasthan, looking to avenge
the murder of his father.


The Air India advertisement, found in a 1975 American magazine, features
Shakespeare with a beautiful Indian woman clad in a sari. Focused from shoulders
up, the black and white image reproduces a typical studio shot of a married couple.
The top of the ad reads, "We go out of our way to please you. We also go to London
every day." This is followed by the contact reference to Air India. Presented in the
image of a couple, the ad naturalizes the union of the colonized Indian woman and
Shakespeare (the most authoritative representative of the culture of the colonizer) and
thrusts them into the global realm of tourism, art, and commerce to symbolize the
union of East and West, with Shakespeare representing the means of transcending the
distance between India and England. To make it more enticing, the slogan that
follows the main caption of the ad is also somewhat sexualized: "We (Air India) work
all day to make your night with us a dream." The advertisement creates a spectacle
that reproduces Shakespeare in the image of the authoritative imperial traveler to the
exotic and mysterious land, India, represented through the image of the exotic Indian
woman. In so doing, the advertisement at once obscures the gendered, racial, and
colonial dynamics that complicate such an image and legitimizes the discourse around
Shakespeare as a harbinger of cultural authority .

My second example is a Hollywood film in the making that plans to cast Indian
Bollywood star Hrithik Roshan in the role of a Rajput prince who avenges his father's
murder in a "chilling thriller." To generate publicity for the film, the filmmakers
proposed to market Roshan as an "Indian Hamlet." While the producer believes that
Hrithik is the ideal candidate for the role and places him "somewhere between Tom
Cruise and Antonio Banderas," he recognizes that Hrithik is a new name in
Hollywood. Therefore, he says, "we will have to sell him through the two known
names Hamlet and Shakespeare". In doing so, the Hollywood producer assumes the
far-reaching influence of and appreciation for Shakespeare. At the same time, as a
film that will be shot in India with some scenes in England, it conjures up the image
of exoticism that continues to seize the West's imagination.


Such images not only keep alive Shakespeare’s insidious influence in India, they
further perpetuate the discourse about the bard's cultural superiority, which continues
through government-sponsored agencies, the continuing presence of Shakespeare
studies in education, and through theatre groups and touring companies performing
locally and visiting from abroad.

1. According to the passage, Hrithik has to be marketed as India’s Hamlet because
(A) his name is unknown to American audiences
(B) American audiences confuse him with Tom Cruise and Antonio Banderas
(C) the movie’s Hollywood producer assumes the far-reaching influence of and
appreciation for Shakespeare
(D) the film will be shot in India and England
(E) Hrithik is the ideal candidate for the role
The best answer is A. The author states that since Hrithik is a new name to American
audiences he will have to be sold through two familiar names, Hamlet and
Shakespeare.

2. The author’s attitude toward the cultural capital accorded to Shakespeare in India
is best described as one of
(A) indifference
(B) hesitance
(C) disapproval
(D) amusement
(E) neutrality

The best answer is C. In the last paragraph, the author refers to Shakespeare’s
influence as insidious.

3. In can be inferred from the passage that more people in the U.S. are likely to pay to

see the Hollywood movie mentioned in the passage if the actors are
(A) Indian
(B) British
(C) Classically trained
(D) familiar to the audience
(E) excellent at portraying their roles

The best answer is D. No information is given in the passage on how the factors
mentioned in choices A, B, C, and E might influence a movie-goer.

4. In the last paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) correcting an error occurring in one of the works under review
(B) citing evidence to support a view of Shakespeare in India
(C) drawing conclusions on the basis of evidence presented in the first three
paragraphs
(D) summarizing the arguments about Shakespeare presented in the first three
paragraphs
(E) refuting the view of Shakespeare’s influence in India presented in the previous
paragraph

The best answer is C. In the last paragraph, the author draws conclusions on the
effects of the examples presented earlier in the passage.