READING COMPREHENSION Section of the SAT

The Verbal section of the SAT contains four written passages (each between 400 - 800 words
long) followed by a series of questions. Nearly half of the total questions in the Verbal section
of the exam (40 out of 78) test your reading comprehension skills. Passages can be about any
subject, but the most common themes are politics, history, science, business and the
humanities. Most readers find the passages difficult because the subject matter is dry and
obscure. Many are written in the passive voice and contain unpronouncable words. By
design, no academic background offers an "edge" or greater likelihood of success in this
section of the test. The material is purposely selected to test your reading comprehension,
rather than your understanding of a specific subject area. This ensures:
a) the passages do not require you to have any specialized knowledge in the subject area
b) everything you need to answer the questions is presented in the passage
The passages always use a formal, compact style. They are excerpted from academic journal
articles, but are not printed verbatim. The original article is heavily edited to just one-quarter to
one-third of its original length, retaining the formal style of the piece, but removing the
introductory material, fillers and transitional phrases. Worse, passages are untitled and often
start in the middle of an explanation or discussion, so the reader must jump in with no clear
point of reference.
The purpose of the section is to determine if you can quickly identify the structure, objective
and logic of a long, difficult passage and apply the author's premise to new situations. To
succeed in the rigid timeframe, students must read with a different mindset than they use in
most traditional coursework.
Here are the exact directions used on the exam:
Directions: Each passage below is followed by a set of questions. Read the passage, then answer the accompanying
questions, basing your answers on what is stated or implied in the passage and any introductory material provided. Mark
the letter of your choice on your answer sheet.

On each SAT, there will also be a section in which two related passages appear consecutively,
followed by a single set of questions that covers both. These passages are usually narrative
exceprts from fiction or nonfiction books. For example, there may be a pair of passages

featuring excerpts from two speeches given by famous political candidates. You will be
expected to understand the similarities and differences between the two points of view.
Answer the questions in the same manner as you would for individual passages. The
directions for dual passages are:

Directions. The two passages given below deal with related topics. Following the passages are questions about the
content of each passage or about the relationship between the two passages. Answer the questions based upon what is
stated or implied in the passages and any introductory material provided. Mark the letter of your choice on your answer
sheet.

Reading styles are subjective, as what works for one person may not work for another.
Success with these passages depends on your individual style. We can't recommend speed
reading, which is designed for ordinary, non-technical material. Because passages are so


dense, you can not skim over a single sentence without missing key information. You should
read faster than normally, but not to the point that your comprehension suffers. Experiment to
find your optimum pace. Some guides recommend that you read the questions first, then go
back and read the passage. Sadly, few students will have enough time for that approach. In
some cases, the questions and answer choices are longer than the actual passage!
We recommend that you take a few seconds at the beginning of the section and scope out the
four passages. Read the first line of each and determine which will be easiest for you and
which will be hardest. Do the easiest one first. Don't waste precious time on a dense, difficult
passage. Rack up as many "easy" points as possible first, then return to the hardest
questions.

The Five Questions
The key to performing well on the passages is not your particular reading technique, but
in your familiarity with the types of possible questions. In general, there are only five
question types explored on the reading comprehension test:

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Main Idea
Details
Organization
Extension / Application
Attitude / Tone

As you become familiar with the different question types, you will gain an intuitive sense for the
places from which they are likely to be drawn. You can then approach these questions quickly
and efficiently. Generally, the order in which the questions are asked corresponds to the order
in which the main issues are presented in the passage. Early questions should correspond to
information given early in the passage, and so on.
a) Main Idea Questions
Main idea questions test your ability to identify and understand an author's intent. The main
idea is usually stated:
i) in the last (occasionally the first) sentence of the first paragraph
ii) in last sentence of the entire passage.
Main idea questions are usually the first questions asked in the question set.
Some common main idea questions are:
Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
The primary purpose of the passage is to ...
In the passage, the author's primary concern is to discuss. ..
Which of the following would be an excellent title for the passage?

Main idea questions are usually not difficult. If you don't catch the main idea after your first

reading, review the first and last sentence of each paragraph. These will give you a quick
overview of the passage.
Because main idea questions are relatively easy, the test writers try to obscure the correct
answer by surrounding it with close answer-choices that either overstate or understate the
author's main point. Answers that stress specifics tend to understate the main idea, while
choices that go beyond the scope of the passage tend to overstate the main idea. The correct
answer to a main idea question will summarize the author's argument, yet be neither too


specific nor too broad. In most cases, the main idea of a passage is found in the first paragraph
or in the final sentence of the entire passage.
b) Detail Questions
Detail questions refer to a minor point or to incidental information in the passage, but not to the
author's main point. These questions take various forms:
According to the passage. ..
In line 25, the author mentions....for the purpose of ...
The passage suggests that which one of the following would....

The answer to a detail question must refer directly to a statement in the passage, not to
something implied by it. When answering a detail question, find the point in the passage from
which the question is drawn. Don't rely on memory, as many tactics are used with these
questions to confuse test takers. Not only must the correct answer refer directly to a statement
in the passage, it must refer to the relevant statement. The correct answer will be surrounded
by wrong choices which refer directly to the passage but don't address the question. These
choices can be tempting because they tend to be quite close to the actual answer.
Once you locate the sentence to which the question refers, you must read a few sentences
before and after it to put the question in context. If a question refers to line 30, the information
needed to answer it can occur anywhere from line 25 to 35. Even if you spot the answer in line
28, you should still read a few more lines to ensure you have the proper perspective.
c) Organization of the Passage

Because they are derived from diverse subject areas, passages can cover an infinite number of
topics.
While main idea questions ask the purpose of the piece, organization questions ask how the
author presents his ideas. While authors can theoretically use an endless number of writing
techniques, most test passages use one of just three organizational styles:
i) Compare and contrast two positions
This technique simply develops two ideas and then explains why one is better than the other.
Some common comparison phrases include "by contrast" or "similarly".
Typical questions for these types of passages are:
According to the passage, a central distinction between a woman's position and a man's is:
In which of the following ways does the author imply that birds and reptiles are similar?

ii) Show cause and effect
The author demonstrates that a particular cause leads to a specific result. Sometimes this
method introduces a sequence of causes and effects: A causes B, which causes C, which
causes D, etc. Hence B is both the effect of A and the cause of C.

iii) State a position and then offer supporting evidence
This technique is common with opinionated passages. Many authors prefer the reverse order,
where the supporting evidence is presented first and then the position or conclusion is stated.


Following are some typical questions for these types of passages:
According to the author, which of the following is required for one to become proficient with a computer?
Which of the following does the author cite as evidence that the species is dangerous?

d) Extension / Application Questions
Extension questions require you to go beyond what is stated in the passage, asking you to
draw an inference, to make a conclusion, or to identify one of the author's tacit assumptions.
You may be asked to draw a conclusion based on the ideas or facts presented:

It can be inferred from the passage that. ..
The passage suggests that. ..
From this we can conclude that.....

Since extension questions require you to go beyond the passage, the correct answer must say
more than what is stated in the passage. The correct answer to an extension question will not
require a quantum leap in thought, but it will add significantly to the ideas presented in the
passage.
While extension questions ask you to apply what you learned from the passage to derive new
information about the same subject, application questions go one step further, asking you to
apply what you have learned from the passage to a different or hypothetical situation.
The following are common application questions:
Which one of the following is the most likely source of the passage?
Which of the following is an appropriate title for this piece?
Which one of the following actions would be most likely to have the same effect as the author's actions?
The author would most likely agree with which one of the following statements?
Which one of the following sentences would the author be most likely to use to complete the last paragraph of the passage?

To answer an application question, consider the author's perspective. Ask yourself:
what is he arguing for?
what might make his argument stronger?
what might make it weaker?
Because these questions go beyond the passage, they tend to be the most difficult. They
require you to pick up subtleties of the author's attitude.
e) Attitude / Tone Questions
Tone questions discuss the writer's attitude or perspective. Does he feel positive, negative or
neutral? Does he give his own opinion or objectively present those of others? Before reading
the answer choices, decide whether the writer's tone is positive, negative or neutral. If you
didn't get a feel for the writer's attitude on the first reading, check the adjectives used (they
nearly always have a strong positive or negative connotation).

Beware of answer choices that contain extreme emotions. Passages are usually taken from
academic journals, where strong emotions are considered inappropriate. The writers usually
display opinions that are considered and reasonable, not spontaneous or off-the-wall. The
tone or attitude of a passage closely parallels the main idea. If the author's intent is to explain
the reasons for abolishing slavery, the tone is explanatory or encouraging, not negative or


discouraging. The correct answer will also be indisputable. The test writers NEVER allow the
correct answer to be vague, controversial or grammatically questionable.
Key Words That Identify Potential Questions
Each passage contains about 400 - 700 words and only a few questions, ensuring that you will
NOT be tested on most of the specific details. Your best reading strategy is to identify the
places from which questions will most likely be drawn and concentrate your attention there.
Key, pivotal words indicate contrast, warning that the author is about to either make a U-turn or
introduce a counter-premise (a concession to a minor point that weakens his case). Common
pivotal words include:
But
However
Despite

Although
Yet
Nevertheless

In Contrast
Nonetheless

Even though
Except


These words show where the author changes direction, providing natural places for questions
to be drawn. The test writers form questions at these junctures to test whether you followed the
author's line of reasoning or got lost. Sentences containing pivotal words nearly ALWAYS
contain the answer to a test question.
Handling Incorrect Answer Choices
One of the most difficult tasks in writing test questions is composing tempting, incorrect answer
choices. In most cases, only two of the five choices will have any real merit. We've observed
several common threads in the wrong answer choices that most test takers should consider.
Be on the look-out for the following:
a) For main idea questions, incorrect choices use the wrong verb and focus on supporting
details, rather than the main point of the passage. Incorrect choices also tend to either
overstate or understate the author's view. Beware of extreme choices, as they are often wrong.
Correct answers tend to be rational, measured responses. Other tempting incorrect answer
choice are "half-right, half-wrong", incorporating some of the author's view, but not a complete
match. Other wrong answers pick a point of view that is inconcistent with the author's.
b) On detail questions, incorrect answer choices distort the author's words or are exact
opposites of the correct answer.
c) For inference questions, incorrect choices distort the passage's ideas and go beyond the
scope of the passage. For application questions, wrong choices are not parallel or analagous
to the situation in the passage.
d) Incorrect tone answers are overly emotional or the opposite of the correct answer. Some
incorrect answers are odd combinations of adjectives that make no sense in real world
applications, such as "detached ambivalence", "enlightened apathy", and "muffled denial".
e) Sometimes incorrect answers are logically wrong. They misrepresent the author's purpose
or focus on the "what" rather than the "why" of the detail.
f) Watch for unusual or uncommon usage of words. Students sometimes overlook points in
passages because a familiar word is used in an unfamiliar manner. An example is champion.
As a noun, champion means a hero or accomplished person. Yet, a a verb, champion means
to support or advocate.



g) Be wary of extreme answers that contain "all or nothing" buzzwords such as must, always,
impossible, never, cannot, each, every, totally, all, solely and only. Few passages will be written
in such an absolute tone.

Two Sample Reading Comprehension Passage (and Solutions)
Now we will apply all the methods we have learned to two test passages. To parallel the
timing of the actual test, spend about 10 minutes on each passage.
Passage 1

5

10

15

Epidemiological strategies to control infectious disease in Third World countries conventionally
include the erection of barriers to international travel and immigration. Keeping people with
infectious diseases outside national borders has reemerged as an important public health
policy with the recent emergence of the Ebola virus epidemic. Between 49 and 70 countries are
reported to have introduced border restrictions on Ebola-infected foreigners, usually those
planning an extended stay in the country, such as students, workers or military personnel.
Travel restrictions have been established primarily by countries in the Asian and Mediterranean
regions, where the Ebola outbreak is relatively contained. However, the country with the
broadest policy of testing and excluding foreigners is Canada. From September 15, 1995, when
the Ebola infection was first classified in Canada as a contagious disease, through September 15,
1998, more than 500,000 people seeking permanent residence in Canada tested for Ebola
antibodies. The Canadian policy has been sharply criticized by national and international
organizations
as being contrary to public health goals and human rights principles. Many of

these organizations are boycotting international meetings in Canada that are vital for the study
of prevention, education, and treatment of Ebola.
The World Health Organization requires the Public Health Service to list "danger ous contagious diseases" for
which aliens can be excluded from Canada. By 1995 there were 20
six designated diseases, all sexually
transmitted (gonorrhea, venereum, HIV and infectious syphilis) and two non-venereal (tuberculosis and leprosy).
On June 8, 1998, in response to a direction cited in the in the Scott Amendment, the Public Health Service added
Ebola to the list of dangerous contagious diseases.

25

30

35

A fair and efficacious travel and immigration policy would not exclude people because of
their serologic status unless they posed a danger to the community through casual
transmission. Canadian regulations should list only active tuberculosis as a contagious
infectious disease. We support well-funded programs to protect the health of travelers infected
with Ebola through appropriate immunizations and prophylactic treatment
and to reduce behaviors that may transmit infection.
We recognize that treating patients infected with Ebola who immigrate to Canada will incur
costs for the public sector. It is inequitable, however, to use cost as a reason to exclude people
infected with Ebola, for there are no similar exclusionary policies for those with other
costly chronic diseases, such as heart disease or cancer. Rather than arbitrarily restrict the
movement of a subgroup of infected people, we must dedicate ourselves to the principles of
justice, scientific cooperation, and a global response to the Ebola epidemic.

1. According to the passage, countries in Asia have
(A) a very high frequency of Ebola-infected immigrants and have a greater reason to

be concerned over this issue than other countries.
(B) opposed efforts on the part of Mediterranean states to establish travel restrictions on Ebolainfected residents.
(C) a low Eboola prevalence and, in tandem with Mediterranean regions, have established travel restrictions on Ebola-infected foreigners.
(D) continued to obstruct efforts to unify policy concerning immigrant screening.
(E) joined with Canada in sharing information about Ebola-infected individuals.
2. The authors of the passage conclude that


(A) it is unjust to exclude people based on their serological status without the knowledge that they pose
a danger to the public.
(B) Canadian regulations should require more stringent testing to be implemented at all major border
crossings.
(C) it is the responsibility of the public sector to absorb costs incurred by treatment of immigrants
infected with the Ebola virus.
(D) the Ebola epidemic is largely over-stated and that, based on new epidemiological data, screening
immigrants is not indicated.
(E) only the non-venereal diseases tuberculosis and leprosy should be listed as dangerous and
contagious diseases.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) more than 3 million Ebola-infected people have sought permanent residence in Canada.
(B) countries with a low prevalence of Ebola have a disproportionate and unjustified concern over the
spread of the virus by immigration.
(C) Canada is more concerned with controlling the number of Ebola-infected immigrants than with
avoiding criticism from outside it's borders.
(D) current law is meeting the demand for prudent handling of a potentially hazardous international
issue.
(E) actions by countries in the Asian and Mediterranean regions to restrict travel are ineffective.
4. Before the Scott Amendment in 1998, six designated diseases were listed as being cause for denying
immigration. We can conclude from the passage that
(A) the authors agree fully with this policy but disagree with adding Ebola to the list.

(B) the authors believe that sexual diseases are appropriate reasons for denying immigration but not
non-venereal diseases.
(C) the authors disagree with the amendment.
(D) the authors believe that non-venereal diseases are justifiable reasons for exclusion, but not
sexually transmitted diseases.
(E) the authors believe that no diseases should be cause for denying immigration.
5. In referring to the "costs" incurred by the public (line 33), the authors apparently mean
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

financial costs.
costs to the public health.
costs in manpower.
costs in international reputation.
costs in public confidence.

Passage 2

5

10

15

In recent years the revolution in reproductive technology has
attracted wide attention. Controversy centered initially on
whether genetic cloning techniques could create new, possibly

dangerous forms of life. Attention next focused on the power
of genetic engineering to produce valuable new medical and
agricultural products. Largely overlooked, however, are developments that will ultimately have far greater social impact: the
ability to analyze genetic information will allow the prediction
of human traits. While some fear that by analyzing the entire
library of human gene sequences we will discover the essence
of humanity, this is unlikely. Our bodies are complex networks of interacting components, influenced by a variable
environment. Nevertheless, genes do help determine aspects
of human form and function. Herein lie the seeds of future
problems.


20

25

30

35

40

By about the year 2005, barring unforeseen technical
obstacles, scientists will have fully mapped the complex
human genetic terrain. Before this, however, new information
will make possible techniques that will engender a host of ethical issues. Imagine that investigators could predict with some
accuracy such aspects of human behavior or functioning as
intelligence, shyness, aggressiveness, or heat tolerance.
Consider the power this would give to some-and the vulnerable position in which it would put others.
Even if society can anticipate and control most misuse of

genetic data, we face a more insidious problem: a rising ethic
of genetic determinism. For the past centuty, ideological currents have closely affected the nature versus nutture debate.
Widespread rejection of social Darwinism and institutionalized racism has buoyed the strong nurturist sentiments of the
past half centuty, but a growing propottion of the public,
impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to
view genes as determinants of the human condition. Such an
uncritical embrace of genetics will not be detetted by scientists'
reminders that the powers of genetic predictions are limited. Environmental variations can cause genetically similar
individuals to develop in dramatically different ways, and
genetics will at best suggest only a probability of development
for complex traits, such as those involved in behavior and cognition. Those overlooking this will disastrously misjudge individual ability.

45

50

55

What a tragedy this would be. We Americans have viewed our
roots as interesting historical relics, hardly as rigid
molds dictating all that we are and will be. Moreover, a belief
that each of us is responsible for our own behavior has woven
our social fabric. Yet in coming years we will hear increasingly from those attributing "bad" behavior to inexorable biological forces. As a biologist, I find this a bitter prospect. The
biological revolution of the past decades will spawn enormous
benefits, but we will pay a price unless we craft an ethic that
cherishes our spontaneity, unpredictability, and individual
uniqueness.

6. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) The relationship between science and society leads to complex ethical questions that may either

benefit or impair the development of each.
(B) Society should understand that environmental conditions may cause genetically similar individuals to
develop in dramatically different directions.
(C) The effort to analyze humans' genetic makeup could lead to a dangerous belief in genes as
determinants of who we are and how we think.
(D) The ability to analyze complex genetic information will ultimately lead to a fundamental
understanding of human form and function.
(E) Scientific research has often been influenced by public values and attitudes in ways that have had
important results.
7. The author suggests that an "uncritical embrace" (line 37) of advances in genetics will tend to
(A) obscure the degree of complexity of many human traits
(B) diminish the public's ability to halt illicit use of genetic data
(C) further the chance that genetic cloning may lead to hazardous life forms
(D) enlarge the magnitude of technical problems occurring in genetics studies
(E) increase the potential for negligence on the part of geneticists


8. With which one of the following predictions about the biological revolution discussed in the passage
would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) The revolution will lead to gross injustices in society.
(B) The revolution will bring greater good than harm to society.
(C) The revolution will not be as far-reaching as some believe.
(D) The revolution will lead to needless anxiety on thepart of the public.
(E) The revolution will be problematic as well as beneficial.
9. The author mentions the nature-versus-nunure debate primarily in order to
(A) demonstrate the difficulty of predicting and preventing misuse of scientific data
(B) supply a point of reference for an assessment of the validity of recent advances in genetics
(C) cast doubt on the moral integrity of society
(D) illustrate that political interests have largely determined public interpretatIons of scientific Issues
(E) point out a distinction between scientific conclusions based on facts and those based on

assumptions
10. The author's attitude toward the revolution discussed in the passage can best be characterized as
(A) concerned that the revolution will suffer technical setbacks
(B) apprehensive about some of the revolution's likely effects
(C) encouraged about the material benefits society will derive from it
(D) surprised that the revolution enjoys wide public support
(E) anxious that the revolution's accomplishments be fully recognized
11. The author implies that recent advances in genetics would pose fewer problems if which one of the
following were true?
(A) The public was more circumspect in its response to those advances.
(B) Scientists conducting research were more sensitive to public concerns.
(C) The public was less skeptical of innovative scientific techniques.
(D) Scientists were less influenced in their work by public opinion.
(E) Scientists were more willing to admit the limitations of their work.
12. Which of the following sentences would best complete the last paragraph of the passage?
(A) Biologists must assist in a search for a community of common purpose just
as they must assist in the design of a society of mutual advantage.
(B) Routine tests will soon detect predispositions to diseases as well as indicate
a range of normal human traits.
(C) In particular, the tangible fruits of the revolution will greatly improve our society's
health and economic productivity.
(D) By studying and enumerating individual genes, we will only begin to penetrate the
surface of human complexity.
(E) Even biologists having valid access to genetic profiles may misinterpret data made
available by new procedures.

Answers and Explanations for Reading Passages
Passage 1
1. Choice C is correct. This is a detail question and the correct answer is in the opening
sentence to paragraph two.



2. Choice A is correct. This is another detail question, and Choice A is a paraphase of the
opening sentence of paragraph four. Choice C is a tempting alternative, yet it is not directly
stated by the passage.
3. Choice C is the correct answer to this extension question. Paragraph two describes the
criticism against the Canadian immigration position.
4. Choice C is the correct answer to this extension question. The authors mention only that
tuberculois should be listed as a contagious disease, not Ebola.
5. Choice A is correct. The passage mentions only the financial costs of diseases, not other
factors.
Passage 2
6. Choice C correctly encompasses the author's topic, scope and point of view.
Choice A omits some information and is too broad, while B makes an irrelevant implication.
Choices D and E are both too positive in tone, while E is also off topic. .
7. Choice A is correct, and requries you to read several lines to put the information in the
correct context. It also accurately paraphrases the passage. Choice E is a reach and not
suggested by the passage, while B and C contains referenes much earlier in the passage.
Choice D contains incorrect information.
8. Choice E is correct and is a direct paraphrase of the final sentence. Choice A ignores the
hypothetical nature of the whole discussion, while B, C and D do not match the author's
attitude or tone.
9. Choice D is correct among a lot of jargon and buzzwords. Choice A contradicts the
sentiments that begin paragraph 3, while B and E are irrelevant. Choice C is plausible, but not
the most likely answer.
10. Choice B correctly captures the author's unease. Choices A and E contain plausible
adjectives but veer off the mark. The adjectives used in choices C and D are incorrect.
11. This is a logic question. Choice A correctly acknowledges the main cause of the problem
as outlined in paragraph 4. Choices B and D contain incorrect information, while C gives the
exact opposite answer to A. Choice E is not supported by the passage.

12. Choice D is correct and well support's the author's sentiments. A opposes the author's
view, while B, C and E are too detailed. Choices B and C also disagree somewhat with the
author's view.